A 24-year-old woman consults for lower abdominal pain of two weeks of evolution that has worsened with the last sexual intercourse. She reports having a recent partner with whom she only occasionally uses a condom. On examination, she was in fair general condition. Temperature 38.6ºC, leukocytes 16,000/uL (85% neutrophils); CRP 30 mg/L. Speculum examination shows abundant abnormal vaginal discharge and painful cervical mobilization. Indicate the FALSE answer:
Pelvic inflammatory disease is suspected, given the patient's symptoms. According to the 2006 SEGO protocol for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease, answer 2 is the false answer and, therefore, the one that should be marked. This is because hysterosalpingography can spread the infection to the pelvic and abdominal cavity. The rest of the answers are correct.
We would start antibiotic treatment as soon as we suspect the diagnosis.
We would indicate as a preferential complementary test a hysterosalpingography for tubal assessment.
Delay in diagnosis and treatment increases the occurrence of sequelae.
The presence of abscess would be a criterion for hospitalization.
answer 2 is the false answer and, therefore, the one that should be marked. This is because hysterosalpingography can spread the infection to the pelvic and abdominal cavity.