A 34-year-old man consults for fever and malaise. The medical history includes a history of homosexual relations for the last 4 months with a new partner. 2 months before the current consultation he had a painless ulcerative lesion on the glans penis with bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy, all self-limited. Serological studies were requested with the following results: HIV negative, RPR 1/320, HAART 1/128. What treatment would you indicate for this patient?
Direct response question. This is syphilis (both by antecendent and serology) in the secondary stage, so treatment is with Benzathine Penicillin 2.4 MU in a single dose.
None.
Intravenous penicillin G, 24 MU every day for 14 days.
Benzathine penicillin 2.4 MU intramuscular, 3 doses in three consecutive weeks.
Ceftriaxone 2 grams intramuscular in a single dose.
Benzathine penicillin 2.4 MU intramuscularly in a single dose.
This is syphilis (both by antecendent and serology) in the secondary stage, so treatment is with Benzathine Penicillin 2.4 MU in a single dose.