A 24-year-old young man who 3 days after a risky sexual contact presents numerous pustular lesions, small, very pruritic and evolving to tiny erosions affecting the entire glans and the inner face of the foreskin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnostic approach?
Chancroid is a solitary lesion. Secondary syphilis usually occurs as a generalized rash or as characteristic lesions on palms and soles (syphilitic nails) with a longer latency period. Trichomonas balanitis is always associated with urethritis, which is not referred to in the question. Therefore, the answer is 1. However, the clinical picture suggests herpes simplex rather than candidiasis and 5 also refers to fungi (although dermatophytes do not cause balanitis).... from our point of view, even if we consider 1 to be correct, the question is misleading and could be open to challenge. Moreover, genital candidiasis is not necessarily sexually transmitted.
Genital candidiasis.
Chancroid.
Secondary syphilis.
Trichomonas balanitis.
Dermatophyte fungal infection.
Chancroid is a solitary lesion.
Secondary syphilis usually occurs as a generalized rash or as characteristic lesions on palms and soles (syphilitic nails) with a longer latency period.
Trichomonas balanitis is always associated with urethritis, which is not referred to in the question.