A 27-year-old woman consults for secondary amenorrhea of one year of evolution. She has no iatrogenic history. Analytically, the estradiol concentration is below normal and the prolactin value is 12 ng/mL. Indicate which of the following examinations would you request as a first step to try to identify the origin of the disorder:
Young woman with secondary amenorrhea, with no history of interest. Prolactin values are normal (values above 20ngr/ml are considered hyperprolectinemia), thus ruling out hyperprolactinemia as the cause of amenorrhea. They tell us that the estrogen level is low. In this case we should suspect early ovarian failure. For its diagnosis we will ask for a basal FSH (in cases of premature ovarian failure it would be elevated).
Hypothalamohypophyseal MRI.
Karyotype.
Basal FSH.
Chorionic gonadotropin stimulation.
They tell us that the estrogen level is low. In this case we should suspect early ovarian failure. For its diagnosis we will ask for a basal FSH (in cases of premature ovarian failure it would be elevated).