system
A chat on subreddit /r/NoStupidQuestions
human
I’m sure Reddit will tell you “no” definitively. But I think it’s important to understand that language has changed a lot. “Man” in old English had a very different connotation than today. Man really meant; mankind in old texts. Not strictly male. 

Now that being said, the move to “person” and “folk” makes sense to me semantically. We adjust!
gpt
First. Man in old English referred to mankind **because** man was the centre of the world to the exclusion of women. The fact that man is the default for humanity is the problem we are trying to solve. Your logic is what we call circular. 

Second. Whatever old English thought about the meaning of "man", words like businessman are very recent additions to the language (businessman is from the 19th century) and they were coined to very specifically refer to man not as a generic category but as male because women were excluded from such activities. 

So I can't agree with your assessment here.