    I am working on 4Q104 (PAM 41.299) (Ruth 1:1-10) and note
that, so far as I can tell from the photo I have, that in line 2
"Moab" is somewhat unclear. In fact, all I can see is mem
(something) aleph.  In line 4 of the text Moab is fully written
out.  So far as I can see in line 2, there is no room for the
final beth, and there is no inidication that it was ever there.
So I am wondering if someone can help explain why Moab (if it is
indeed Moab) is spelled without  beth in line 2.   Jim West