Take the 2-minute tour ×  How does the torah reading and
haftorah reading relate for Va-yayshev? Why do we read from Amos
after reading from Va-yayshev?  share|improve this question  2
Answers 2  up vote 8 down vote accepted  Levush (Orach Chaim
669) says that it is because its first verse condemns the Jewish
people על מכרם בכסף צדיק - for selling the righteous for money.
This ties in, then, with the brothers' sale of Yosef (even
though the simple meaning of the verse is referring to the
kingdom of Yisrael some 900 years later).  Indeed, the next
phrase, ואביון בעבור נעלים, "and a poor person [they sell] for
shoes," is also seen (in Yalkut Shimoni, Bereishis 142) as
hinting at what the brothers did with the money they received
from the sale - they bought shoes. (Which, in turn, is the
source for the Midrashic account of the Roman emperor "filling
his palace with shoes" and then calling the Ten Martyrs to task
for that crime.)  share|improve this answer  The Rav Pinches
Friedman Chlit"a did a very interesting