Why the inverted commas?  (26 Posts) MyNameIsLola Wed 06-Feb-13
17:13:44  I rarely post in feminism but I lurk an awful lot,
have always had feminist views and have been educated by this
board.  I was browsing the news earlier and came across this
story. I'm confused as to why on earth the word rape is in
inverted commas! The girl was 8 FFS, surely there is no
plausible explanation as to how she could've given consent.  Can
anyone else see any reason why they would use them or are Sky
just misogynistic, rape apologists as well as arses?  Perhaps
because although it's almost certain to have been a rape it is
still under investigation. I read it as being intended in the
same way that the media has to refer to 'alleged rape' until a
conviction has been obtained. I guess doing it this way takes up
less space.  tribpot Wed 06-Feb-13 18:56:20  Yes, I think it's
to indicate that this is a quote, rather than a finding. The
prosecutor lists rape and child sex abuse as possible findings -
there may be differences in la