Tell me more ×  Is it prohibited to derive benefit from a
mixture of milk and meat if the animal was improperly
slaughtered? Assume the animal slaughtered, like the milk-giving
animal, is kosher, but the slaughter did not meet standards of
kashrus. Would one be permitted to derive benefit from the
mixture (i.e. feeding it to a pet)?  It seems that Rambam writes
about this in his commentary to the Mishna (Keritut 3:4), but
that his opinion is not widely considered normative. Why not?
share|improve this question It seems that Rambam writes about
this in his commentary to the Mishna (Keritut 3:4), but that his
opinion is not widely considered normative. –  SAH Apr 4 '12 at
20:53 SAH you are indeed correct...but I wonder why you ask when
it seems you know the answer? –  Double AA Apr 4 '12 at 20:59
@DoubleAA, ... or if the question is really "Why isn't the
Rambam's opinion on this normative?", go ahead and cite the
Rambam and ask that question. –  Isaac Moses Apr 4 '12 at 21:40
I'm fairly certain that it is perm