Take the 2-minute tour ×   Why is in the official writing above,
signed by Catholic Church and Jews, 'Divine Providence' used,
and not 'Holy Spirit'?  Perhaps, is there an ontological
difference between 'Divine Providence' and 'Holy Spirit'? If so,
can anyone explain what the difference is?  Thank you, and the
peace be with you.  share|improve this question add comment  2
Answers  One Theory: It's possible that the Jews (which Jews?
There's not just one body of "orthodox" Jews.) do not wish to
endorse the Christian idea of the Trinity. The Holy Spirit is
not exactly described as a divine person in the OT. "Spirit" and
"Spirit of God" are used, but not really in the same sense as
"Holy Spirit" is used in the NT.  Perhaps alluding to the Holy
Spirit is not a concession that the Jews wish to make, and for
the sake of expressing positive things in common, "Divine
Providence" was something both groups could agree on.
share|improve this answer add comment  In the Christian
tradition, the "Holy Spirit" refers speci