Take the 2-minute tour ×  John 20:17a:   Why did Jesus tell Mary
not to "hold on to" Him? Presumably it was not a problem with
touching, since Jesus told Thomas to touch Him. Was it a gender
issue?  I know Jesus said, "for I have not yet returned to the
Father" but I don't understand why that should prohibit physical
contact.  share|improve this question  2 Answers 2  up vote 2
down vote accepted  Not a Gender Issue  He allowed a sinful
woman to wash his feet before with her tears and hair, which was
rather inappropriate for her to do particularly at a dinner she
wasn't invited to.   Moreover, in general all of the details the
Bible gives are important. If this was a gender issue, it would
be of little to no theological significance.  The Theological
Reason  After Jesus' resurrection, his relation to his disciples
changed. They don't recognize him right away in several cases,
and in the book of Revelation John has a very different
experience of him than leaning on his chest as at the last
supper.  When I saw