Take the 2-minute tour ×  In Isaiah 7:13-17   The name Immanuel
is used here to refer, ostensibly, to Jesus. However, Jesus is
only confirmed by Matthew indirectly in Matthew 1:23-24   Is
there another reference that makes this illusion more clear
(possibly with historical significance)? Do the other gospel
accounts support this conclusion?  HT: Sklivvz for asking this
in a comment on this answer.  share|improve this question add
comment  1 Answer  Immanuel is a title that means "God with us".
Some people have suggested that since Jesus was named "Jesus",
then "Immanuel" does not refer to Him. This is akin to claiming
that the titles "King of Kings" and "Lord of Lords" don't apply
to Jesus, because He was named "Jesus" and not "King of Kings"
or "Lord of Lords".  God the Son, the Second Person of the
Trinity, is co-eternal and co-existent with the Father and the
Spirit. When God the Son (The Word) entered into His creation,
He was given the name Jesus (Yeshua in Hebrew). "Yeshua" means,
"The Lord (God) saves"