From: Stephen Carlson ( Date: Tue Nov 14 1995 - 16:48:46 EST  I
haven't seen any replies to this, but there have been computer
problems last week, so I apologize in advance if I am retreading
old ground.  Edgar M. Krentz wrote: > The question is
complicated by the context, since v.41 sys that Jesus had > pity
on the man (SPLAGXNISQEIS). The western text tradition,
representedby > Codex D and the Latin MSS a ff2 r1 reprent both
one Old Latin and two Vg > Mss reads ORGISQEIS instead of
EMBRIMIHSAMENOS, apparently to remove the > conflict with v. 43.
I think that more consideration needs to be given to the Western
reading. From a source critical perspective, I frankly can't see
how both Matthew and Luke would agree to remove SPLAGXNISQEIS,
since Matthew includes it even where Mark does not (20:34, cf.
Mk10:52), and Luke uses it to describe Jesus in his own special
material (7:13). On the other hand, while Mark does not use
ORGISQEIS to describe Jesus elsewhere, he did use MET' ORGHS at
3:5, which is lacking in