
I know that the answer to the question "What exception is mentioned?" is in "The other Ancient Greek dialects, Ionic, Doric, Aeolic, and Arcadocypriot, likely had the same three-way distinction at one point, but Doric seems to have had a fricative in place of /tʰ/ in the Classical period, and the Ionic and Aeolic dialects sometimes lost aspiration (psilosis).". Can you tell me what it is? 


but Doric seems to have had a fricative in place of /tʰ/ in the Classical period
