Biology 1413

Examination I


1. The population level of organization does not include the ________ level.

a. atomic

b. molecular

c. community

d. organ

e. tissue

2. The hollow ball of cells that forms early in embryological development is termed

a. haploid.

b. the zygote.

c. the gastrula.

d. the blastula.

e. a blastomere.

3. A cell is removed from an embryo after the first few cleavages have occurred. After approaching full term it is discovered that the organism is missing a left leg. This animal

a. exhibits radial cleavage.

b. has cells which were totipotent.

c. exhibits spiral cleavage.

d. did not pass through the blastula stage.

e. did not undergo gastrulation.

4. Animals that do not form a mesoderm during gastrulation are referred to as

a. haploid.

b. amesodermal.

c. triploblastic.

d. diploblastic.

e. tetraploid.

5. The ectoderm gives rise to the

a. blood.

b. muscles.

c. skeleton.

d. alimentary tract.

e. nervous system.

6. In enterocoelous animals, the coelom forms from

a. ectoderm

b. splits in the mesodermal bands.

c. pouches that produce mesoderm.

d. splits in the endoderm.

e. pouches from the ectoderm.

7. Animals that form true organs

a. reach the tissue grade of organization only.

b. are diploblastic.

c. exhibit spherical symmetry.

d. are known as the eumetazoa.

e. never exhibit radial symmetry.

8. An animal in which the blastopore gives rise to the mouth would belong to the

a. protostome group.

b. deuterostome group.

c. radial cleavage group.

d. protozoa.

e. group which only exhibit bilateral symmetry.

9. An animal with a body cavity that is not derived from mesoderm would be a (an_

a. acoelomate.

b. pseudocoelomate.

c. eucoelomate.

d. deuterostome.

e. schiozcoelomate.

10. Which of the following is not an advantage of a true coelom?

a. permits increased body flexibility

b. permits greater space for visceral organs

c. allows for greater size of the animal

d. can function as a hydrostatic skeleton

e. permits increased transmission speed of nerve impulses

11. In animals that exhibit true metamerism, typically all of the organ systems are segmentally arranged except for the

a. nervous system.

b. circulatory system.

c. muscular system.

d. alimentary system.

e. excretory system.

12. Which of the following phyla exhibit true metamerism?

a. mollusca

b. platyhelminthes (flat worms)

c. arthropods

d. cnidaria (jelly fish)

e. porifera (sponges)

13. Which of the following is not a function of the integument?

a. prevention of water loss

b. protection

c. sensory functions

d. mate selection and behavior

e. production of sex cells

14. The great majority of invertebrates possess and integument that is composed of

a. a stratified squamous epithelium.

b. an epidermis and a dermis.

c. a single layer of epithelial cells.

d. a layer of connective tissue.

e. a calcarious shell.

15. The layer of the arthropod cuticle that is composed largely of chitin is the

a. hypodermis.

b. procuticle.

c. epicuticle.

d. epidermis.

e. dermis.

16. Which of the following is not an epidermal derivative in vertebrates?

a. foot pads

b. fish scales

c. claws

d. nails

e. reptile scales

17. A hydrostatic skeleton works by

a. compression of fluid in the coelom.

b. increasing blood pressure.

c. contraction of muscles on fluid in the coelom.

d. expulsion of fluid from the coelom by muscle contraction.

e. contraction of muscles on connective tissue masses.

18. A major advantage of the chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is

a. it limits size.

b. it must be shed (moulted) for growth to occur.

c. it is very strong.

d. it possesses flexible joints that permit movement.

e. it is composed largely of chitin.

19. Dermal bone

a. forms by replacement of a cartilage model.

b. is the most common form of bone in vertebrates.

c. occurs only in the appendages.

d. forms between mesodermal membranes.

e. occurs only in the pelvic girdle.

20. Which of the following is found in the appendicular division of the skeleton?

a. skull

b. rib cage

c. vertebral column

d. appendages

e. sternum

21. In the vertebrate skeleton, an example of serial homology would be

a. the sternum and the ribs.

b. the vertebral column and the skull.

c. the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle.

d. the upper arm and upper leg.

e. the ribs and vertebral column.

22. Each cilium is anchored in the cytoplasm of a cell by means of a (an)

a. kinetosome.

b. centromere.

c. barr body.

d. flagellum.

e. microtubule.

23. Intercalated disks are characteristic of

a. cilia.

b. flagella.

c. skeletal muscle.

d. cardiac muscle.

e. smooth muscle.

24. In a skeletal muscle cell, calcium is stored in the

a. myofibrils.

b. myofilaments.

c. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

d. thick filaments.

e. thin filaments.

25. A muscle cell contracts when

a. thick filaments slide in between the thin filaments.

b. thin filaments slide in between the thick filaments.

c. binding sites on thick filaments are covered by the troponin/tropomyosin complex.

d. calcium is removed from the myofibrils.

e. the cell membrane is at resting potential.

26. The protein which acts as a switch during the contraction cycle is

a. actin.

b. myosin.

c. troponin.

d. tropomyosin.

e. switchin.

27. A given muscle is known to contain 1000 motor units. This muscle would contain ________ motor neurons.

a. 10

b. 100

c. 1000

d. 10000

e. cannot be determined from the information provided

28. Muscles can cause movement by

a. relaxing.

b. pushing across joints.

c. pulling across joints.

d. pushing against bones.

e. pushing against a fluid filled coelom.

29. The coordination of all of the cells and tissues of an animal best defines

a. homeostasis.

b. osmotic balance.

c. integration.

d. irritability.

e. cooperation.

30. The processes of a neuron that conduct the nerve impulse toward the cell body are the

a. axons.

b. dendrites.

c. myelin sheaths.

d. neurilemmas.

e. nissl bodies.

31. Depolarization of a nerve cell is brought about by a (an)

a. inward movement of potassium.

b. outward movement of sodium.

c. inward movement of sodium.

d. outward movement of potassium.

e. inward movement of calcium.

32. In a typical action potential, the inside of the cell membrane

a. moves from positive to negative.

b. moves from positive to negative and then back to positive.

c. moves from negative to positive and then back to negative.

d. moves from negative to positive and stays positive.

e. moves from negative to more negative and then positive.

33. The component of a nervous control system that conveys the action potential to the effector is the

a. receptor.

b. afferent neuron.

c. integrator.

d. synapse.

e. efferent neuron.

34. Receptors that are responsible for detecting the position of the body in space are termed

a. exteroreceptors.

b. interoreceptors.

c. chemoreceptors.

d. proprioreceptors.

e. thermoreceptors.

35. A nerve net contains

a. motor neurons.

b. sensory neurons.

c. integrating centers.

d. undifferentiated neurons.

e. muscle cells.

36. Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse occurs by means of

a. electron flow from presynaptic to postsynaptic neuron.

b. ion flow from presynaptic to postsynaptic neuron.

c. neurotransmitter which is released by the postsynaptic neuron.

d. neurotransmitter which is released by the presynaptic neuron.

e. an electrical spark jumping the synaptic gap.

37. An evolutionary significant aspect of the nerve cords in invertebrates is that they

a. contain no sensory neurons.

b. contain no motor neurons.

c. are located dorsal to the alimentary tract.

d. are located ventral to the alimentary tract.

e. do not connect to "brains."

38. The vertebrate central nervous system is composed of

a. cranial nerves and the brain.

b. spinal nerves and the spinal cord.

c. cranial nerves and spinal nerves.

d. cranial nerves and the spinal cord.

e. the brain and spinal cord.

39. True epithelial endocrine cells are found only in the

a. vertebrates.

b. arthropods.

c. platyhelminthes (flat worms).

d. arthropods and vertebrates.

e. arthropods and platyhelminthes.

40. Endocrine hormones reach their target cells via

a. nerve cells.

b. ducts to the target tissue.

c. diffusions through the respiratory passage ways.

d. the circulation.

e. active transport.

41. A major function of the endocrine system in arthropods is the control of

a. metamorphosis.

b. color change.

c. electrolyte metabolism.

d. moulting.

e. digestion.

42. In both arthropods and vertebrates, most of the endocrine system is regulated by the

a. circulatory system.

b. external environment.

c. nervous system.

d. electrolyte levels.

e. epithelial tissues.

43. Hormones that affect their target cells via the second messenger system usually initiate the synthesis of ________ within the cells.

a. adenyl cyclase.

b. cAMP.

c. ATP.

d. glucose.

e. sodium.

44. Protozoa do not require specialized systems for circulation, respiration, or excretion because

a. they are to simple to require those functions.

b. they do not metabolize and therefore do not require oxygen.

c. these functions can be carried out by their cell membrane.

d. their nucleus does not contain the proper genetic information.

e. all of these functions can be carried out directly by their


45. Lymph is distributed in acoelomates by means of

a. lymph vessels.

b. hemocoels.

c. the pseudocoelom.

d. body movement.

e. pulsatile blood vessels.

46. Which of the following is not true about open circulatory systems?

a. they restrict the maximum size of the animal

b. blood comes directly into contact with the cells

c. they are found in the arthropods

d. the hearts usually pump blood out in two directions

e. they are capable of generating high pressure

47. The simplest possible heart consists of

a. two chambers.

b. three chambers.

c. four chambers.

d. a contractile vessel.

e. an organ in a hemocoel that pumps blood in both directions.

48. Myogenic hearts are found in the

a. arthropods.

b. vertebrates.

c. flatworm.

d. pseudocoelomates.

e. acoelomates.

49. Lymph vessels of vertebrates function to

a. exchange materials between the tissues and the lymph.

b. carry blood away from the heart.

c. carry blood towards the heart.

d. return tissue fluid to the circulation.

e. pump blood through the capillaries.

50. Which of the following blood pigments contains copper?

a. hemocyanin

b. hemerythrin

c. chlorocruorin

d. hemoglobin

e. myoglobin

51. The bulk of the dissolved substances found in plasma consist of

a. sugar.

b. fatty acids.

c. proteins.

d. glycogen.

e. respiratory gases.

52. Crustaceans utilize the respiratory pigment known as

a. hemoglobin.

b. hemocyanin.

c. hemoerythrin.

d. chlorocruorin.

e. myoglobin.

53. Respiration in all animals requires

a. lungs.

b. gills.

c. a moist membrane.

d. invaginations of the body wall.

e. evaginations of the body wall.

54. For animals which utilize integumentary respiration, the respiratory organ is

a. a lung.

b. a gill.

c. the skin.

d. the pharynx.

e. the digestive tract.

55. Most invertebrate breathing organs are derived from

a. ectoderm.

b. endoderm.

c. mesoderm.

d. the digestive tract.

e. integument.

56. Terrestrial animals have their respiratory organs located internally while aquatic forms usually have them externally.

The reason for this difference is

a. their is lower oxygen levels in the terrestrial environment.

b. carbon dioxide will not dissolve in water as easy as oxygen.

c. oxygen will not dissolve in water as easily as carbon dioxide.

d. direct exposure of the respiratory membrane to terrestrial environments would result in drying out and loss of function.

e. aquatic animals require less oxygen than do terrestrial animals.

57. Book lungs are found in the

a. vertebrates.

b. crustaceans.

c. spiders.

d. mollusks.

e. insects.

58. Which of the following statements about vertebrate gill development is not correct?

a. a set of embryonic pouches grow out from the pharynx.

b. a set of pouches grows inward from the integumentary side.

c. the two sets of pouches meet to form a gill slit.

d. the gill slits are lined by ciliated breathing epithelium.

e. the dorsal aorta conducts blood from the heart to the gills.

59. Both the swim bladder of fishes and the lungs of vertebrates are derived from

a. an ectodermal invagination.

b. a pouch off of the pharynx.

c. mesodermal buds.

d. extensions of the coelom.

e. expansions of the first gill.

60. Which of the following is not a function of alimentary systems?

a. ingestion of food

b. egestion of undigested materials

c. generation of energy (ATP)

d. digestion of food materials

e. absorption of nutrients

61. Which of the following animal groups relies completely on extracellular digestion?

a. protozoa

b. vertebrates

c. flatworm

d. cnidarians

e. sponges

62. The two hole digestive tract is more efficient than the one hole pattern because it

a. allows more food to be ingested.

b. provides for chemical digestion.

c. allows for tract specialization.

d. it uses a common opening for both ingestion and egestion.

e. utilizes intracellular digestion exclusively.

63. The utilization of ciliated tentacles to ingest microscopic food particles best describes the ________ method of feeding.

a. suction

b. rasping

c. filter

d. ingestion of bulk matter

e. microscopic

64. The great bulk of digestion and absorption in the vertebrate alimentary tract occurs in the

a. pharynx.

b. stomach

c. esophagus.

d. small intestine.

e. large intestine.

65. The maintenance of a constant environment within an animals body fluids in spite of a changing external environment best describes the concept of

a. hypothesis formation.

b. equilibrium.

c. homeostasis.

d. positive feedback.

e. negative feedback.

66. A marine invertebrate which was an osmoconformer would maintain its salts concentrations

a. less than sea water.

b. greater than that of sea water.

c. about the same as sea water.

d. at about the same level as marine vertebrates.

e. less than marine vertebrates.

67. Which of the following is a method by which freshwater fishes maintain proper salt and water balance in their body?

a. active transport of salt out of their bodies across their gills

b. production of minimum amounts of urine

c. production of a highly concentrated urine

d. active inward transport of salt across their gill

e. excretion of large quantities of salts in the urine

68. Flame cells are found associated with

a. contractile vacuoles.

b. metanephridia.

c. protonephridia.

d. antennal glands.

e. malpighian tubules.

69. Insects and spiders utilize ________ for water balance.

a. antennal glands

b. protonephridia

c. metaneprhidia

d. malpighian tubules

e. pronephros

70. The archinephros, the ancestral kidney of vertebrates, is found today only in the

a. embryos of hagfish.

b. embryos and adults of hagfish.

c. fishes in general.

d. amphibians.

e. all tetrapods except for the mammals.

71. In the nephron unit, filtration of blood occurs across the

a. collecting tubules.

b. proximal convoluted tubule.

c. glomerulus.

d. peritubular capillary bed.

e. loop of Henle.

72. The outer layer of the metanephros kidney is termed the

a. medulla.

b. cortex.

c. renal columns.

d. nephron.

e. collecting tubules.

73. Following filtration, approximately ________ % of the materials filtered into the initial urine are reabsorbed back into the blood.

a. 1

b. 10

c. 25

d. 50

e. 99

74. If an animal is in a dehydrated state due to high temperatures, you would expect that ADH levels in the plasma would be

a. low.

b. high.

c. unaffected.

d. declining.

e. cannot be determined from the information provided.

75. The osmotic gradient through which the collecting tubules pass is created by

a. active transport of salt in the proximal convoluted tubules.

b. active transport of salt in the distal convoluted tubules.

c. active transport of salt in the loop of Henle.

d. active transport of glucose and amino acids through the nephron.

e. the osmotic movement of water out of the collecting tubules.

76. An asexual method in which internal buds are formed that are released after the parent organism dies is termed

a. schizogony.

b. binary fission.

c. gemmule formation.

d. fragmentation.

e. budding.

77. The major advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it

a. requires more than one individual.

b. produces offspring which are genetically identical to one another.

c. produces offspring which show genetic variation.

d. results in more offspring.

e. is easier to execute.

78. Animals in which one individual produces both types of gametes are referred as

a. dioecious.

b. biparental.

c. monoecious.

d. parthenogenetic.

e. asexual.

79. The development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg is referred to as

a. dioecious.

b. monoecious.

c. parthenogenesis.

d. indeterminate development.

e. determinate development.

80. The excitation of the mammalian heart begins in the

a. sinus node.

b. atrioventricular node.

c. atrioventricular bundles.

d. Purkinje fibers.

e. cardiac control centers.