1. What type of warhead is used in the AGM-88 HARM?
    Directed fragmentation
  2. What is the approximate weight of the AGM-88?
    800 lbs
  3. What provides thrust for the AGM-88?
    A low smoke, solid propellant, Dual Thrust Rocket Motor (DTRM)
  4. How does the AGM-45 Shrike missile receive its homing signals?
    Enemy radar
  5. What air to surface missile has short to medium range and infrared guidance?
    AGM-65F Maverick
  6. What is the prescribed range of the AGM-119B Penguin missile?
    Short to medium
  7. The AGM-119 Penguin missile uses what kind of homing?
    Infrared terminal homing
  8. What air to ground missile has short to medium range, infrared guidance and is used against ships?
    AGM-119 Penguin
  9. What missile is an anti-armor, laser guided, air-to-ground weapon that uses a shaped charge warhead to defeat hard point targets with minimal exposure of the launch helicopter to enemy fire?
    AGM-114 Hellfire
  10. The AGM-114 Hellfire missile uses what type of guidance?
  11. What is the approximate weight of the AGM-114 Hellfire missile?
    110 lbs
  12. What type of warhead is used in the AGM-114 Hellfire series missile?
    Shaped charge or blast fragmentation with incendiary or thermobaric capability depending on the version
  13. What versions of the AGM-114 are approved for shipboard use?
    AGM-114B and AGM-114K (The is due to the addition Safe Arm Device (SAD) to these versions)
  14. What guided missile is a supersonic, medium range, air-to-air weapon with active radar target detection and on-board inertial navigation guidance?
    AIM-120 Advance Medium Range Air to Air Missile (AMRAAM)
  15. Where is the TDD assembly located on the AIM-120?
    Between to warhead and electronics assembly
  16. The missile umbilical located where on the AIM-120?
    Between the rocket motor and warhead
  17. Where are the seeker and servo assemblies located on the AIM-120?
    Forward of the electronics assembly
  18. Where is the electronics assembly located on the AIM-120?
    Aft of the seeker and servo assemblies 350 lbs
  19. What is the approximate weight of the AIM-120?
    350 lbs
  20. What type of warhead is used in the AIM-120?
  21. There are how many different Configurations of the TALD?
    • 3
    • A/B-37U-1(V)-1
    • Chaff Vehicle A/B-37U-1(V)-2 RF Vehicle
    • ADM-141A/B RF Vehicle
  22. What is the designation of the Tactical Air Launched Decoy (TALD) used for Radio Frequency (RF) emissions?
    A/B-37U-1(V)2 or ADM-141A/B
  23. What is the designation of the Tactical Air Launched Decoy (TALD) that uses chaff as a decoy?
  24. What is the nominal weight of the TALD chaff vehicle?
    382 lbs
  25. What is the nominal weight of the TALD RF vehicle?
    400 lbs
  26. What decoy has turbojet propulsion, low-level navigation and provides the Navy operational elements with an effective radar decoy capability?
    ADM-141C Improved Air Launched Tactical Decoy (ITALD)
  27. What is the weight of the ADM-141C ITALD?
    375 lbs (This includes 47 lbs (6 gallons) of JP-10 fuel)
  28. What missile is an air-to-ground glide weapon that can be employed against a variety of land and sea targets, can incorporate a 500 pound warhead or cluster munition and uses GPS for navigation?
    AGM-154 Joint Stand-Off Weapon (JSOW)
  29. What configuration of the JSOW delivers a 500 pound warhead derived from the MK-80 series of weapons?
  30. What is the weight of the AIM-154C?
    1965 lbs
  31. What configuration of the JSOW delivers cluster munitions bomblets?
  32. The AIM-154A contains (a) what number and (b) type of bomblets?
    (a) 145 (b) BLU-197
  33. What is the weight of the AGM-154A?
    1,065 lbs
  34. For the LAU-7 nitrogen receiver, what pressure indicator color contains the range 2.2 to 2.8 psi?
  35. The LAU-7/A guided missile launcher nitrogen receiver store what maximum amount of high pressure nitrogen?
    3,200 psig
  36. The PP-2581/A power supply is a single phase power supply used in what launcher?
  37. What is done to complete the cooling circuit on the LAU-7A missile launcher?
    Load missile/connect the umbilical
  38. For information on the LAU-7 launcher refer to what publication?
    NA 11-75A-54
  39. What adapter allows suspension of the LAU-7A launcher to the aircraft bomb rack?
  40. Of the following components - forward retainer assemblies, sway braces, aft detent blocks, and snubbers, which is used on the LAU-7 launcher prevent movement of a missile in flight?
  41. What holds the AIM-9 in place on the LAU-7 launcher while in-flight?
    Detents and snubbers
  42. Longitudinal and lateral movements of a missile loaded on a LAU-7/A missile launcher are prevented by what components?
    Forward and aft snubbers
  43. The nitrogen system in a LAU-7 missile is used for what purpose?
    Cools the missile’s infra-red detector
  44. What missile launcher requires an Eddy current inspection?
  45. What missile launcher incorporates a countermeasures dispenser, which provides a countermeasure capability against radar homing and infra-red seeking missiles?
    LAU-138 BOL/Chaff (Modification of the LAU-7/A-6 launcher)
  46. What missile is compatible with the LAU-118 guided missile launcher?
    AGM-88 HARM
  47. Of the following launchers - LAU-116, LAU-118, LAU-115, and LAU-117, which is capable if carrying and launching the Maverick missile?
  48. What component of the LAU-117A launcher prevents accidental release of the missile?
    Missile Restraint Device (MRD) holdback pin
  49. What manual contains LAU-117A(V)2/A missile launcher intermediate level maintenance information?
    NAVAIR 11-75A-79
  50. What component of the LAU-117A launcher prevents accidental release of the missile?
    Missile Restraint Device (MRD) holdback pin
  51. On the LAU-117A guided missile launcher, the hold back pin on the MRD can be retracted by moving the bell crank shaft in what direction?
  52. The LAU-118 is used to carry and launch what missile?
    AGM-88 HARM
  53. Of the following - LAU-7, LAU-93, Aero 7A-5, and Aero 5B-1, which is suspended from a bomb rack?
    Aero 5B-1
  54. What guided missile launcher provides a rail to carry a single AGM-45 Shrike missile?
  55. Of the following guided missile launchers – LAU-92, LAU-93, Aero 5B-1, and the LAU-77A, which is a rail launcher?
    Aero 5B-1
  56. During missile loading/unloading, how do you manually unlock the detent on the Aero 5B-1 guided missile launcher?
    Pull detent handle up and out lifting the detent clear of the missile
  57. Of the following launchers - LAU-117, LAU-118, LAU-116, and LAU-127, which is capable of launching the AIM-9 series Sidewinder missile?
    AIM-7 Sparrow or AIM-120 AMRAAM
  58. The LAU-115 launcher is capable of suspending and launching all EXCEPT which of the following missiles - AIM-120, AGM-120, AIM-7, and AIM-9?
  59. How many and what type cads are used with a LAU-116 to shoot a AIM-7 Sparrow missile?
    Two (2) CCU-45
  60. LAU-127 The LAU-127 missile launcher carries and launches what missile system(s)?
    AIM-120 or AIM-9
  61. On an F/A-18, what missile is launched from a LAU-116A?
    AIM-7 Sparrow or AIM-120 AMRAAM
  63. On the F/A-18 which of the following launchers - LAU-117/A, LAU-116/A, LAU-93/A or LAU-92/A is used to suspend and launch a Sparrow missile?
  64. On the LAU-116/A, the AIM-120 missile umbilical connection point in what location?
    Aft of the forward snubber
  65. When weapons are loaded on an aircraft that is on deck, when, if ever, should you activate the master arm?
  66. What distance is the AIM-7 Sparrow held, in inches, from the LAU-115 to connect the motor fire connector?
    3 inches - Raise missile to within 3 inches of launcher and connect and LOCK missile motor fire connector to missile
  67. What is the I-Level maintenance publication for the LAU-116?
  68. What missile launcher on the F-14 aircraft carries and launches the AIM-7 Sparrow missile?
  69. The LAU-93 is used to carry and ejector launch what missile?
    AIM-54 Phoenix
  70. What guided missile launcher carries and launches the AIM-54 missile?
    LAU-93 (F-14A/B) and LAU-132 (F-14D)
  71. How many ejectors are on the LAU-93/A missile launcher?
  72. What CAD is used in the LAU-93 missile launcher ejector assemblies?
  73. During an emergency situation, do both the LAU-77 launcher and the missile jettison from the Aero 7A ejector rack?
  74. What adapter is used to adapt the LAU-7 missile launcher to the parent rack of an A-6 providing sidewinder missile capability?
  75. What is the only test that can be performed on an all up round missile?
    Missile On Aircraft Test (MOAT)
  76. Forward firing ordnance is always loaded where?
    Authorized loading areas facing uninhabited areas
  77. What guided missile launcher was developed specifically for the AGM-114 Hellfire missile and provides the electronic and mechanical interface between the missile and helicopter?
    M272 (Marines – Analog) M299 (Navy) – Digital
  78. What missile launcher suspends and launches the AGM-114 Hellfire missile?
  79. A single M299 can carry up to how many Hellfire missiles?
  80. What publication describes pyrotechnic, screening, marking, and countermeasure devices currently available for Fleet use?
    NA 11-15-7.1 / NAVSEA SW020 AB-MMA-010
  81. A fire occurs in a pyrotechnic magazine and you are the first person on scene. Which of the following means should you used to extinguish or contain the fire - CO2, foam type, CO2 and foam, or water?
  82. Of the following extinguishing agents - chemical, water, sand, and carbon dioxide, which should you use to combat a pyrotechnic fire?
  83. How do you fight a pyrotechnic fire?
    Flooding quantities of water
  84. What are the three classes of pyrotechnic ammunition?
    Marking, screening, illumination
  85. Navy pyrotechnic devices contain what type of material?
    Combustible chemicals
  86. Pyrotechnic devices generally are initiated by means of an “ignition train”, which typically consists of what?
    An igniter, a delay element, and a starting mix
  87. By what means is the night end of the MK-13 distress signal identified? Raised projections The MK-13 smoke and illumination marker emits ____________ smoke for day use and ___________ flame for night use?
  88. What is the method of ignition for the MK-13?
    Flip pull ring, break seal, hold away from face, ignite with pull on ring
  89. What is the burning time for each end of the MK-13? 20 seconds What is the intended use of the MK-124 signal?
    Day and night signaling
  90. Hat color smoke dose the MK13 Emit during the night?
    None red flame
  91. What does the MK-79 signal kit consist of?
    MK-31 signal projector and plastic bandoleer that holds 7 MK-80 Signals
  92. The MK-79 signal kit has a bandoleer holding how many MK-80 signals?
  93. What has to be done before screwing the MK-80 signal device into the MK-31 projector?
    Cock firing pin
  94. When fired from ground level, the star in the MK-80 signal rises to what maximum height?
    650 ft
  95. What is the maximum/minimum height of the star when shot from the MK-79?
    650 feet/250 feet
  96. How long does the star burn in the MK-80 signal?
    4 1/2 seconds
  97. What is the difference between the maximum altitude settings of the MK-45 and LUU-2B/B flares?
    3,000 feet
  98. What fuze is shipped installed in the MK-45 flare?
    MK-346 Mod 0
  99. What are the 15 functional settings of the MK-45 flare?
    1,000 ft - 14,000 ft - in 1,000 ft increments - 500 ft and safe
  100. Regardless of launch method the MK-45 flare is initiated by doing what?
    Exerting pull on the lanyard
  101. What releases the parachute shroud lines on the MK-45 flare?
    Explosive bolt
  102. What is to be done with MK-45 parachute flares in a launcher that has just returned from flight?
    Download from launcher and stow in jettison locker
  103. What aircraft launched flare is used for nighttime illumination of surface areas in search and attack operations?
    LUU-2A/B and B/B
  104. What is the difference between the LUU-2A/B and LUU-2B/B?
    The LUU-2A/B is limited to use on land based aircraft only
  105. What methods are currently used to launch the LUU-2B/B Parachute flare?
    Hand launched or configured for launch from IMER or ITER
  106. What flare did the LUU-2B/B flare replace? MK-24
    MK-24 Mods and MK-45 Mods
  107. What is the major difference between the MK-45 and the LUU-2B/B?
    The candle is not ejected from case of the LUU-2
  108. How many and what are the sections of the LUU-2B/B flare?
    Four - Mechanical timer assembly, parachute suspension system, out-of-line igniter and case assembly with tamped candle
  109. The LUU-2B/B parachute flare candle is ignited by what means?
    The pull force exerted on the ignition lanyard
  110. What is the approximate burn time of the LUU-2B/B and LUU-19?
    420 seconds or seven minutes
  111. Is the mechanical timer on the LUU-2B/B explosive or non-explosive?
  112. On the LUU-2B/B, the white plastic timer knob is pre-set in the safe position for what reason?
    It prevents the timer from starting should the knob be inadvertently removed
  113. On the LUU-2B/B what is provided to make it easier to set in the dark?
    Phosphorescent plastic decal with calibrated markings
  114. The LUU-2 parachute flare has what maximum number of functional settings?
    14 (250, 500, 1,000 to 11,000 ft in 1,000 ft increments)
  115. What is the diameter of the cruciform shaped parachute used on the LUU-2B/B?
  116. What is the minimum drop distance of the LUU-2B/B parachute flare?
    250 ft
  117. The 250 ft setting on the LUU-2B/B is primarily intended for what type of operations?
  118. What is the maximum distance that the LUU-2B/B parachute flare can be dropped?
    11,000 ft
  119. What is used to set the desired drop distance on the LUU-2B/B flare?
    White, plastic dial timer knob
  120. What is the minimum altitude setting of the LUU-2B/B parachute flare?
    250 ft
  121. What is the maximum altitude setting of the LUU-2B/B parachute flare?
    11,000 ft
  122. What are the altitude settings of the LUU-2B/B flare?
    250, 500 and 1,000 – 11,000 ft and safe
  123. What initiates the candle pyrotechnic firing train in the LUU-2B/B flare?
    Firing pin
  124. On the LUU-2B/B how many pounds of pull does it take to pull the timer knob out of the timer?
  125. On the LUU-2B/B the ignition lanyard must exert a pull force in excess of how many pounds to pull the slider assembly in line?
    Excess of 90 lbs
  126. What is the purpose of the drogue tray?
    Used to dispense launch LUU-2B/B parachute flares
  127. What is used to provide stability for the LUU-2B/B after launch?
    Parachute suspension system consisting of an 18 foot diameter cruciform shaped canopy
  128. After parachute deployment what is the average descent rate of the LUU-2?
    Eight feet per second, descending approximately 2,400 feet while burning
  129. What aircraft parachute flare is an Infra-Red (IR) variant of the LUU-2 and provides covert illumination of the battle space while using Night Vision Goggles (NVGs)?
  130. After parachute deployment what is the average descent rate of the LUU-19?
    14 feet per second, descending approximately 5,880 feet while burning
  131. What device ignites a MK-25 MLM?
    Electric squib
  132. On the MK-25 MLM, smoke and flame emit from what location?
    A valve assembly fitted into the projecting chimney at the markers nose end
  133. MK-25 MLMs that have been “made ready” should never be re-stowed in what location?
    In a magazine having a functional sprinkler systems
  134. What methods are currently used to launch the MK-25 MLM?
    Sonobuoy launcher and by hand
  135. The MK-34 marine marker adapter kit is used for what purpose?
    It seals the armed MK-25 marker for launching
  136. MK-25 MLMs can be launched from what type of craft?
    Air or surface
  137. What are the methods of launch for the MK-25 MLM?
    Hand or sonobuoy
  138. What is the only difference between the MK-25 Mod 2 and 3 MLM?
    Mod 2 has 2 sea batteries (2 squibs) and Mod 3 has 1 sea battery (1 squib)
  139. On the MK-25 MLM the rigid cover (arming plate) is held in place by what?
    Retainer ring
  140. What helps identify the armed position of the MK-25 MLM during night use?
    Machined notch in ht rim at armed position
  141. On the MK-25 MLM what physically blocks the base plugs internally to prevent them from being accidentally pushed in?
    Arming plate
  142. How is the MK-25 MLM ignited?
    Electric squib and power supplied by salt water batteries
  143. What is the burning time of the MK-25 MLM?
    13.5 to 18.5 minutes
  144. What is the purpose of the MK-34 adapter kit?
    Launch from sonobuoy or water tight integrity of battery cavity
  145. The MK-58 MLM contains what total number of pyrotechnic candles?
  146. The MK-58 MLM produces flame and smoke for what prescribed length of time?
    40 to 60 minutes
  147. How many pyrotechnic candles and of what composition are contained in the MK-58 Mod 1 MLM?
    2 red phosphorus pyrotechnic candles
  148. In addition to being used for ASW, the MK-58 MLM may be used for search and rescue operations, man-overboard marking and?
    Target bombing at sea
  149. What is the MK-58 MLM not purpose?
    Helicopter landings
  150. How is the MK-58 MLM activated?
    Sea water activates battery which ignites squib
  151. The ignition end of the MK-58 MLM has three holes, what are they for?
    Two for smoke and flame emission and one for water entry
  152. What is the nomenclature of the seawater battery in the MK-58 MLM?
    MK-72 Mod 1
  153. The MK-58 MLM may be hand launched, externally launched from a suitable bomb rack or by what other means?
    Sonobuoy launched
  154. When launched from a Sonobuoy Launch Container (SLC), what secures the MK-58 MLM inside?
    Foam spacers
  155. What is the burn time of the MK-58 MLM?
    40 to 60 minutes
  156. The MK-58 MLM contains and burns what total number of phosphorous candles?
  157. Because of environmental concerns, under no circumstances, other than extreme emergency, should ammunition, explosives, or other related hazardous materials be dumped at sea by a naval vessel, aircraft or activity without prior approval of whom?
  158. Approval for dumping pyrotechnic ammunition at sea is granted by what authority?
    CNO (Regulated by the EPA)
  159. There is a fire in a pyrotechnic magazine, you are the first person on scene, what would you use to fight the fire?
    Water in flooding quantities at low pressure
  160. What type of air stabilizer is used on aircraft launched torpedoes?
  161. Exposure to Otto Fuel II can cause what effects on the human body?
    Headache, dizziness, and nasal congestion
  162. Exercise torpedoes are identified by what color code markings?
    An orange nose and after-body with a blue stripe around the ballast section
  163. The MK-31 Mod 1 air stabilizer is used for torpedoes configured for which of the following aircraft - F/A-18, P-3, S-3, or SH-60?
  164. After the torpedo is released, release wires unlatch the suspension bands, allowing them to break away, what is the reason for this?
    So the torpedo goes into the water slick
  165. You are about to load a torpedo, during the acceptance inspection you check for all but which of the following - suspension bands aligned, air stabilizer installed, 30 inch lug holes ready for loading or arming lanyard in safety switch?
    30-inch lug holes (Torpedo’s have 14 inch suspension)
  166. What is the weight of the MK-46 torpedo?
    568 lbs
  167. What is used as the propellant in the MK-46 torpedo?
    Otto II fuel
  168. What is the nomenclature of the suspension bands used on the MK-46 torpedo?
  169. What is the exercise head used on the MK-46 exercise torpedo?
  170. What is the purpose of the stabilizer on the MK-46 torpedo?
    Ensure predictable air trajectory and water entry
  171. What reduces the speed of the MK-46 torpedo after high speed launch?
    Air stabilizer/parapack
  172. Which anti-submarine torpedo is lightweight, high speed and uses a steam turbine to generate propulsion?
  173. What section of the MK-50 torpedo provides propulsion and control functions?
  174. What is the approximate weight of the MK-50 torpedo?
    775 to 800 lbs
  175. Aircraft laid mines should be handled in the same manner as which type of explosive?
    Bombs and assemblies
  176. How are mines classified?
    Intended use, method of delivery, position assumed when laid, method of actuation or weight
  177. Mines classified by method of delivery are?
    Submarine, air, surface laid
  178. Mines classified by the position they take in the water after being laid are?
    Moored and bottom
  179. What types of influence operated mechanisms are currently in aircraft laid mines?
    Acoustic, pressure, and magnetic
  180. Of the following - hydrostatic, pressure, magnetic, and acoustic, which is NOT a general category of influence actuated mines?
  181. Moored mines are what type of mines?
  182. MK-55, MK-62, and MK-63 are what type of mines?
  183. When an MK-60 Captor mine detects an enemy submarine, it launches what anti-submarine weapon?
    A homing torpedo (MK-46)
  184. Approximately what total range of explosive load is in an air laid mine in pounds? 160 to 1300 What is the main element of a mine? Mine case What are the three classifications of influence actuated mines?
    Acoustic, magnetic, and pressure
  185. What means can detonate an acoustic mine?
    Sound waves generated by a ship’s screws
  186. What type of explosives (filler) are used as the main charge of mines?
    Comp B, TNT, H6 or HBX
  187. What is the delay time range for implanted air laid mines?
    8 minutes to 10 days
  188. The detonation of a mine caused by the shock of explosions set off in attempts to sweep acoustic mines is prevented by what component?
    Anti-counter mine device
  189. Which of the following is not a principal mine safety feature - clock delay, flat nose casing, hydrostatic piston or explosive aligning piston?
    Flat nose casing
  190. What acts to open and close electrical switches in mine arming components?
    Hydrostatic piston
  191. What aligns the explosive train when the hydrostatic piston and explosive piston are forced in by water pressure after the mine is laid?
    Explosive piston (freed by water pressure)
  192. What prevents an acoustic mine from detonating during mine sweeping operations?
    Anti-counter mine device An aircraft laid mine is submerged for a pre-determined time after planting.
  193. What device prevents the mine from firing until the predetermined time elapses?
    Clock delay mechanism
  194. The MK-55 is classified as what type of mine?
  195. What device keeps an aircraft-laid mine from firing until it has been submerged for a predetermined time?
    The clock-delay mechanism
  196. What explosive filler is used in the MK-55 mine?
  197. What is the weight class of the MK-55 bottom mine?
    2,000 lbs (2,273 lbs actual)
  198. What mine is equipped with an anti-countermine device that prevents detonation from explosives set off during mine sweeping operations?
  199. What is the method of delivery for the MK-56 mine?
    Air laid
  200. What is the only air-laid moored mine in service use?
  201. What is the method of delivery for the MK-60 Captor mine?
    Air laid
  202. What mine is used against submarines?
    MK-60 Captor
  203. What mine requires arming wire installation prior to aircraft loading?
    MK-60 Captor
  204. Arming wires should be installed on what mine
    before loading?
    MK-60 Captor
  205. Of the following types of actuation - acoustic,controlled, pressure, and magnetic which cannot be loaded on an aircraft?
  206. Who is responsible for the assembly of air laidmines?
    Mobile Mine Assembly Group (MOMAG)
  207. In what minimum depth of water may a mine be safely jettisoned?
    800 feet
  208. In addition the standard LDGP marking, aDST/Quickstrike is identified by what other markings?
    White stripes
  209. What is used with a MK-80 series LDGP bomb to make a Destructor mine?
    MK-75 modification kit
  210. What components make up the MK-75 Destructorkit?
    MK-32 arming device, MK-59 booster, and MK-42firing mechanism
  211. What bomb body is used to build a MK-41 DST?
    MK-84 conical fin
  212. What DST can only be dropped in the unretarded- low drag mode?
  213. How are Destructors marked/identified?
    Standard LDGP bomb markings plus white stripes
  214. What is the Target Detecting Device used in theMK-62 Quickstrike mine?
  215. What is the arming device used in the MK-65?
  216. What is the weight class of the MK-63 Quickstrike mine?
    1,000 lbs
  217. Give a basic description of the M61A1 aircraft
    Six (6) barrel rotary action automatic
  218. The M61A1 gun rotary mechanism works off of what aircraft system?
  219. The M61A1 aircraft gun is ____________ driven and ____________ controlled?
    Hydraulically - electrically
  220. In an M61A1 gun system the six barrel rotary action mechanism is operated by what means?
    Hydraulic power
  221. The M61A1 gun has a pilot selectable firingrate of ____________ low and ____________ high?
    4,000 - 6,000
  222. Naval aircraft configured with the M61A1, 20MM aircraft gun have what (a) low and (b) high selectable rates of fire?
    (a) 4,000 (b) 6,000
  223. What is the SWL of the F/A-18 gun systemhoisting adapter?
    874 lbs (Commonly known as the bird cage in the Hornet community)
  224. With the gun installed in the F-14 and the lowrate selected, what is the gun’s rate of fire?
    4,000 rounds per minute
  225. What series of ammunition is used in the M61A1aircraft gun?
    M50 and PGU
  226. How is M50 series 20MM ammunition identified?
    Color and lettering
  227. What round of M50 series ammunition contains afuze in the projectile?
  228. What 20MM gun ammunition shall not be usedin-flight?
    M54 High Pressure Test (HPT)
  229. What ammunition should NEVER be fired from an aircraft in flight?
  230. What are the primary parts of the M61A1 gun?
    Barrels, housing assembly, and rotor assembly
  231. What restrains individual barrel movement during firing?
    Muzzle clamp assembly
  232. The six barrels of the M61A1 gun are supported by what component?
    Stub rotor
  233. What secures the barrels to the rotor assembly?
    Three rows of interrupted locking lugs
  234. What component guides the rounds through the actions of the gun?
    Breech bolt assembly
  235. The M61A1 gun uses what total number of breech bolt assemblies?
  236. How many breech bolt assemblies are in theM61A1 Vulcan gun?
  237. What component transmits the firing voltage to the primer of the round?
    Breech bolt assembly
  238. The barrels of an M61A1 gun are secured to therotor assembly by what means?
    Interrupted locking lugs
  239. What gives you a gripping surface for easy installation and removal of the barrels from the rotor?
    Knurled bands on the barrels
  240. What provides for the front mounting of theM61A1 aircraft gun?
    Recoil adapters
  241. On the M61A1 gun, what is the clearing sector solenoid used for?
    Controls movement of clearing sector assembly
  242. What happens when the clearing sector assembly solenoid is activated?
    Sector arm diverts the bolt assemblies into the clearing cam path
  243. What controls the forward and aft movement of the breech bolts in the M61A1 gun?
    Rotor tracks
  244. What engages the rim of a round throughout the firing cycle?
    Extractor lip
  245. Where are the extractor lips located on the gun?
    Front of each breech bolt assembly
  246. What component is used to check the gun barrels after firing?
    Bore erosion gage
  247. On the M61A1 gun, the lubricator assembly is
    externally attached to what other assembly?
    Gun housing
  248. A lubricator assembly is attached to what component on the M61A1 gun?
    Housing assembly
  249. What lubricant is used in the lubricator assembly on the M61A1 gun?
    DOD-L-85336 (Due to California EPArestrictions, Lemoore squadrons use MC3000,that answer will most likely not be on thetest)
  250. In the M61A1 gun when does the firing cycle begin?
    When power is applied to firing contact assembly
Card Set