Tuesday, July 5, 2011


1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The 'Kalabaisakhis' originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the 'Sunderbans' ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The 'Regur' soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as 'Black Gold' ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the 'Cottonopolis' of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery ('gur')
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of 'Green House Effect' ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The 'Bad land' landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean's greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a 'Zaid' crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these


1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 

110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)