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Specifically, what biblical references speak to whether or not demons originate as human or as another species?

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The concept of fallen angels is based on the following scriptures.















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Fr. John A. Hardon, S.J.'s article What are Possession and Obsession by the Devil?, implies the thesis that demons are human unbelieving souls is false in writing:

We have been reflecting mainly on the angels, as such, and have seen something of what happened at the dawn of angelic creation. Some of the angelic hosts remain faithful to God. Others rebelled against the Creator and became demons.

We have also seen that the angels are not just in a world by themselves. The faithful spirits are angels precisely because they are messengers of God to guide our minds and direct our wills towards that heavenly destiny for which we are made. The rebellious spirits have been allowed, from the dawn of human history to tempt human beings away from their loyalty to God and thus lead men into sin.

In Matt 8:28-32 (compare Mk 5:1-20), the cure of the demoniacs, there is no reason to presume the demons are human souls. This reading of the passage is not in the passage, but an errant interpretation. In v29, The New Jerome Biblical Commentary states (p694, 42:59):

before the right time: This Matthean gloss reflects the intertestamental idea that the demons were free to trouble humanity until the end time (1 Enoch 15-16; Jub. 10:8-9; T. Levi 18:12)

In Matt 12:24, the Pharisees claim Jesus drives our devils through the price of devils. Jesus links his exorcisms to those of the Jewish exorcists. Jesus is clearly claiming his (and the Jewish exorcists) power is from God. This passage once again does not address the claim that devils are the souls of human beings who do not believe in God.

In Matt 25:41. Then he shall say to them also that shall be on his left hand: Depart from me, you cursed, into everlasting fire, which was prepared for the devil and his angels.

In the context of this passage, referring to men who are not permitted into paradise because they did not show concrete love to their fellow men, it contrasts two different beings, human and demonic & implies man as separate and distinct from the devil and his angels.

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If this answers the question, I'm having trouble seeing it. –  fredsbend Aug 21 '14 at 9:11

As I have answered here, I will repost it.





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