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In Phil. 2:6, it is written,

ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ

Wiktionary lists the various declensions of the Greek adjective ἴσος. My question is, how is the word ἴσα declined according to (1) gender, (2) case, and (3) number, and what significance does this declension have with respect to the context of Phil. 2:6?

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It is formally accusative plural neuter, but here used as an adverb.

See: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3Di%29%2Fsos

(Especially under IV).

The KJV is, as usual, about as literal as it is possible to get in English: “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God”. Already in Homer adverbial ἴσα and ἴσον with the dative are used in the phrase “equal with a god”, “just like a god” (ἶσον …. θεῷ Iliad 9,603; ἶσα θεῷ Od.15.520), with reference to mortals.

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