Wednesday, April 16, 2008

Theological Exercise in Critical Thinking: Round 2

Our first one was so much fun, let's try another:

Was Jesus really tempted?

Christian orthodoxy, since the formulation of the early creeds, has asserted that Jesus Christ was both fully God and fully human, possessing both natures “undivided” and “unconfused” in one person. It was necessary for our salvation, early Christians argued, that Jesus be both divine and human. Related to this conviction arose the question of whether it was possible for Jesus to sin. Some argue that because Jesus was fully human, he became “like us in every way” (Hebrews 2:17) and therefore must have been truly tempted (it was not a hypothetical or fiction) such that it was possible for him to sin. The fact that he did not sin (even though he could have) meant that his perfect obedience could be applied to and restore the imperfections of humanity. Others argue that because Jesus was fully God, he could not have actually sinned, because God cannot sin or be “tempted with evil” (James 1:13). They argue that if God cannot sin, and if Jesus was truly the Son of God incarnate, then surely Jesus could not have actually sinned, or he would have been shown not to be God. Furthermore, God’s plan of providing salvation for humanity through Jesus’ perfect obedience would have been nullified, revealing God to be impotent to fulfill his ultimate plan and desires. Jesus’ divine nature and the perfections of divinity ensured that Jesus would not have actually succumbed to temptation.


Which position would you take and why?

If you argue that Jesus could have sinned, how could Jesus have been truly divine, had he actually sinned?
If he had sinned, would that not have nullified our salvation, since he would no longer be the perfect sacrifice?

If you argue that Jesus could not have sinned, then in what way was Jesus truly tempted? Furthermore, in what way could we consider him to be an actual human being, and thus “like us in every way”?

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