BUS 335 Week 7 Quiz Solution – New

BUS 335 Staffing Organizations Week 7 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 8
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants.  True False

2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.  True False

3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles.  True False

4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants.  True False

5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job.  True False

6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job.  True False

7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study.  True False

8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits.  True False

9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.  True False

10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test.  True False

11. Within the context of the selection process, the “logic of prediction” means that:  A. indicators of an applicant’s future performance are predictive of likely job performance B. indicators of a person’s degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success C. predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOs D. indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance

12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees?  A. the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approach B. qualifications carry over from one job to another C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences D. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy

13. If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used.  A. essay B. speed C. power D. objective

14. Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills.  A. oral communication B. written communication C. interpersonal D. none of the above

15. The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________.  A. a selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicants B. a selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteria C. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job D. a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria

16. The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________.  A. reliability B. validity C. utility D. instrumentality

17. Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity.  A. moderate to low B. high to very high C. moderately high to high D. moderate

18. Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false?  A. The list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrix B. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly C. One reason KSAOs may be deemed unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the job D. Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed

19. A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying.  True False

20. Although employers can outsource résumé collection to résumé-tracking services, in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost.  True False

21. Résumé scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs.  True False

22. Video résumés have become a major component of selection in most large organizations.  True False

23. To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank.  True False

24. Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance.  True False

25. College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades.  True False

26. Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the labor market.  True False

27. Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they accurately reflect job knowledge.  True False

28. Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection.  True False

29. Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance.  True False

30. The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application blanks.  True False

31. Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions.  True False

32. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom, “the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior.”  True False

33. Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring.  True False

34. Biodata is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on external references rather than applicant surveys.  True False

35. Biodata items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed.  True False

36. Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive ability.  True False

37. Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive.  True False

38. Biographical information tends to have low reliability.  True False

39. Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories.  True False

40. Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from moderately qualified applicants.  True False

41. One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person.  True False

42. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant’s former colleagues who worked in the same position.  True False

43. Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being sued.  True False

44. Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks.  True False

45. The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting on résumés, has risen dramatically in recent years.  True False

46. Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations’ selection systems.  True False

47. The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches.  True False

48. The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment.  True False

49. Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants.  True False

50. Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity.  True False

51. The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level, training and experience, reference checks, and initial interview.  True False

52. Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants.  True False

53. Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods?  A. Résumés and cover letters B. Application blanks C. Biographical information D. All of the above

54. Which of the following are common sources of résumé fraud?  A. inflated titles B. inflated education or “purchased” degrees C. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment D. all of the above

55. Which of the following statements regarding résumés is true?  A. Even background checks cannot reduce the problem of résumé fraud B. Most surveys suggest that around half of all résumés have substantial inaccuracies or distortions C. Video résumés are highly respected by most employers D. Extensive evidence suggests that résumés are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance

56. In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false?  A. The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant’s level of education. B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance. C. Educational level is a predictor of job performance. D. High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited schools.

57. Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true?  A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant’s KSAOs and motivation. B. GPAs in one’s major tend to be highly similar to one’s GPAs in other classes. C. Grades do not vary widely by field. D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.

58. When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should _________.  A. use extracurricular activities whenever possible B. de-emphasize the use of extracurricular activities C. use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnel D. use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job

59. Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the _______.  A. behavioral consistency method B. experiential summary method C. biodata approach D. none of the above

60. The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are _________.  A. 1.00 B. .80 C. .20 D. .60 E. .40

61. Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include _________.  A. previous employers B. reasons for leaving previous jobs C. previous positions held D. all of the above are true

62. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom, ________.  A. The best predictor of future behavior is motivation level B. The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOs C. The best predictor of future behavior is education level D. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior

63. Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests?  A. Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references. B. They are two different names for the same thing. C. Only background tests look into an applicant’s past. D. Biodata is used primarily when screening applicants for positions in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.

64. Biographical information is like application blanks, except _______.  A. biographical information is based on history, but application blanks are based on current events B. application blanks are more likely to be used for substantive selection decisions C. biographical data is more likely to be accepted by applicants D. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions

65. Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified?  A. historical vs. nonverifiable B. invasive vs. firsthand C. objective vs. subjective D. equal access vs. easy access

66. The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these, and the format is unstandardized.  A. certifications B. biodata forms C. letters of recommendation D. MBAs

67. The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______.  A. a written statement of the accomplishment B. when the accomplishment took place C. any recognition for the accomplishment D. all of the above

68. Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance?  A. Initial interviews B. Handwriting analysis C. Biodata D. Unweighted application blanks

69. Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories.  A. very positive B. negative C. positive D. neutral

70. One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________.  A. are too lengthy to be useful B. are not structured or standardized C. are too ambiguous to interpret D. all of the above are correct

71. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant’s __________.  A. former coworkers B. HR department at his/her former employer C. former supervisor D. friends

72. Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant.  A. integrity B. reliability C. personal adjustments D. all of the above

73. One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ______.  A. expensive B. not related to job performance C. easy to fake D. inefficient

74. Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening?  A. It helps to screen out people who will perform poorly on the job. B. It is used widely by companies in the U.S. C. It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases. D. A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.

75. One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____.  A. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs B. make them long and rigorous C. ask each applicant different questions D. A and B are correct

76. The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______.  A. validity B. reliability C. variability D. central tendency

77. An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________.  A. biographical information B. initial interviews C. application blanks D. resumes

78. _________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor.  A. Low reliability B. Adverse impact C. Utility D. Habeas corpus

79. Disclaimers are used as a means of protecting employer rights.  True False

80. Employers are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to not hire, terminate, or discipline prospective employee for providing false information during the selection process.  True False

81. Failure to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a negligent hiring suit.  True False

82. The laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide any information in a reference check that might damage an applicant’s chances of getting a job.  True False

83. Although arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check, it cannot be used in staffing decisions.  True False

84. It is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate impact on the basis of a protected characteristic, unless such disparate impact can be shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity.  True False

85. Bona fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment phase.  True False

86. Bona fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer preferences are typically upheld by the courts.  True False

87. Adverse impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect class members may be rejected using a given predictor.  True False

88. The Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask disability-related questions and may not conduct medical examinations until after it makes a conditional job offer to a person.  True False

89. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, or national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide occupational qualification.  True False

90. The burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ claims.  True False

91. A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____.  A. providential statement B. disclaimer C. waiver D. requisition

92. Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ______.  A. education level B. quality of school C. training and experience D. all of the above are correct

93. Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of _______.  A. labor contracts B. employment clauses C. disclaimers D. discharge policies

94. Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)?  A. They have little potential for being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process. B. Organizations rarely make inappropriate and illegal PIs. C. It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs. D. The emphasis in PIs is on the illegal collection of information.

95. Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes?  A. Americans with Disadvantaged Access Act B. Fair Credit Reporting Act C. Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977 D. National Labor Rights Act

96. According to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process?  A. Ask if the applicant has any disabilities. B. Ask the applicant if he/she can perform the job, with or without reasonable accommodation. C. Ask the applicant to demonstrate how they could perform the job. D. None of the above are permissible.

97. Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use?  A. One sex has an inability to perform the work. B. Personal contact with others requires same sex. C. Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex. D. All of the above are potential justifications.

Chapter 9
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates.  True False

2. Personality tests and ability tests are examples of substantive assessment methods.  True False

3. Discretionary assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job.  True False

4. Contingent assessment methods are used to make sure that tentative job offer recipients meet certain qualifications for the job.  True False

5. Currently, personality tests are viewed as having no validity whatsoever as selection methods.  True False

6. The Big Five personality test is used to describe emotional and cognitive traits that capture 20% of an individual’s personality.  True False

7. The traits measured by Big Five personality tests are measures of factors brought about entirely by life environments, and not by genetics.  True False

8. Surveys are the most common means of assessing personality.  True False

9. Conscientiousness is a trait that is associated with better job performance, higher job satisfaction, better leadership performance, and higher retention.  True False

10. Extraversion is associated with higher levels of creativity and adaptability.  True False

11. Individuals who have higher levels of agreeableness tend to have lower levels of career success and are less able to cope with conflicts.  True False

12. There is little controversy over the use of personality measures in personnel selection.  True False

13. Evidence suggests that faking or enhancement almost never occurs on personality tests.  True False

14. Socially desirable responding, or presenting oneself in a favorable light, doesn’t end once someone takes a job.  True False

15. Evidence suggests that most applicants have relatively positive reactions towards personality testing.  True False

16. The two major types of ability tests are aptitude and achievement.  True False

17. 80% of organizations use some sort of ability test in selection decisions.  True False

18. Measures of specific cognitive abilities do not reflect general intelligence.  True False

19. The Wonderlic Personnel test is prohibitively expensive for most organizations, because it requires long face-to-face sessions with a trained psychologist.  True False

20. Validities for cognitive ability tests appear to be culturally specific, with far lower validities in the European Union relative to the United States.  True False

21. Cognitive ability tests are excellent predictors for executive and professional jobs, but they are of no value for entry level, clerical, or blue collar jobs.  True False

22. The true validity of measures of general cognitive ability is roughly .50.  True False

23. The biggest reason cognitive tests are not widely used in selection is the difficulty associated with their administration.  True False

24. A concern regarding the use of cognitive ability tests is adverse impact against African Americans.  True False

25. Most experts agree that cognitive ability cannot be measured accurately by standardized tests.  True False

26. Physical ability tests are becoming increasingly common to screen out individuals susceptible to repetitive stress injuries, such as carpal tunnel syndrome.  True False

27. Sensory/perceptual abilities tests assess the ability to detect and recognize environmental stimuli.  True False

28. Research suggests that job knowledge tests have relatively poor validity in predicting job performance.  True False

29. Individuals who have high emotional intelligence are self-aware (good at recognizing their own emotions), other aware (good at recognizing others’ emotions), and good at making use of or managing this aware-ness.  True False

30. Some critics argue that because emotional intelligence (EI) is so closely related to intelligence and personality, once you control for these factors, EI has nothing unique to offer.  True False

31. Measures of emotional intelligence are a valuable supplement to personality tests in a selection context, because they have little similarity to personality.  True False

32. Performance tests and work samples assess applicants’ underlying capacities and dispositions.  True False

33. A low-fidelity test uses realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate the actual tasks of the job.  True False

34. Performance tests and work samples are readily accepted by applicants as job relevant.  True False

35. Performance tests are a useful indicator of some job skills, but they need to be supplemented with other predictors because they do not have high content validity.  True False

36. The major distinction between job knowledge and situational judgment tests is that the former deals with future hypothetical job situations, and the latter explicitly taps the content of the job.  True False

37. Integrity tests are paper-and-pencil or computerized tests that attempt to assess an applicant’s honesty and moral character.  True False

38. Interviewer evaluations of applicant integrity are usually very good, and experts like judges and psychologists can detect lying most of the time.  True False

39. The construct of “integrity” is well understood.  True False

40. Although applicants probably do sometimes fake their answers on integrity tests, the evidence suggests that such faking does not completely eliminate the validity of these tests in predicting job performance and deviant workplace behavior.  True False

41. The Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) is an example of an interest inventory.  True False

42. Interest inventories play a key role in organizational selection decisions.  True False

43. Interest inventories tend to be more tied to the occupation, rather than the organization or the job.  True False

44. A typical unstructured interview often contains highly speculative questions.  True False

45. Applicant appearance may be a source of error or bias in an unstructured interview.  True False

46. The starting point for the structured interview is the job rewards matrix.  True False

47. Situational interviews assess an applicant’s ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future.  True False

48. Research has found that structured interviews do not add validity in predicting job performance beyond cognitive ability tests.  True False

49. The interview is the central means through which an applicant can learn about the job and organization.  True False

50. Applicants tend to react very negatively to the interview.  True False

51. When developing structured interviews, one or more questions must be constructed for each KSAO targeted for assessment by the structured interview.  True False

52. ________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job.  A. Initial B. Substantive C. Discretionary D. Contingent

53. Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits __________.  A. Conscientiousness B. Extroversion C. General mental ability D. Neuroticism

54. Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors?  A. They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance. B. They represent emotional traits. C. They represent cognitive abilities. D. None of the above.

55. This personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job satisfaction, and lower adaptability on the job.  A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

56. This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and difficulty in coping with conflicts.  A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

57. This personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and a lower commitment to one’s employer.  A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

58. What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts?  A. Concientiousness, emotional stability, extraversion B. Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience C. Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion D. Extraversion, conscientiousness, emotional stability

59. Which of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the selection process?  A. Emotional stability is a much more valid predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly. B. The aspect of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress proneness. C. The Core Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have much validity in predicting job performance. D. None of the above.

60. Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests?  A. Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups. B. Openness to experience does not predict training performance. C. Extraversion predicts job performance for most jobs. D. All of the above are true.

61. Which of the following statements is false?  A. There is little evidence that people fake their scores on personality tests in the hiring contexts B. When individuals believe their scores are being used for selection, their observed scores tend to increase C. Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests D. None of the above statements is false

62. Measures which assess an individual’s capacity to function in a certain way are called ______.  A. interest inventories B. ability tests C. personality tests D. knowledge tests

63. Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence?  A. verbal abilities B. quantitative abilities C. reasoning abilities D. All of the above are correct

64. The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____.  A. MMPI B. Myers-Briggs C. Wonderlic Personnel Test D. Job Characteristics Inventory

65. Which of the following is true regarding cognitive ability tests?  A. Cognitive ability tests are among the least valid methods of selection. B. Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range of organizations and jobs. C. There is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial returns. D. All of the above are true.

66. Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____.  A. job knowledge B. presentation skills C. social networking capacity D. diligence

67. The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________.  A. they are too expensive. B. they are too time-consuming. C. they are difficult to administer. D. they have an adverse impact on minorities.

68. The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____.  A. demonstrated to be an artifact of question wording B. decreasing over time C. lower when tests are given in an open-ended format D. both b and c

69. Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests?  A. relatively strong B. no support C. very weak D. some

70. The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________.  A. situational judgment tests B. behavioral implementation tests C. work sample tests D. Job simulation tests

71. The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test.  A. job knowledge B. psychomotor C. high fidelity D. low fidelity

72. Work samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although they are difficult to use in __________ jobs.  A. customer service B. assembly C. bank teller D. none of the above

73. Situational judgment tests ______.  A. have very high adverse impact B. involve applicants’ descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios C. are based on applicants’ evaluations of photographs D. have very low validity

74. Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests?  A. Their use has declined in the past decade. B. They are used to reduce employee accidents. C. They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures. D. The construct of integrity is well understood.

75. Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____.  A. are about as predictive of job performance as ability tests B. are more predictive of job performance than ability tests C. are not strongly predictive of job performance D. are prohibited by law

76. Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview?  A. It is usually carefully planned. B. The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate C. It consists of formal, objective questioning. D. The interviewer is highly prepared.

77. Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews?  A. Low reliability between interviewers. B. Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings. C. Primacy effects. D. All of the above are true.

78. The first step of the structured interview process is __________.  A. selecting and training interviewers B. developing the selection plan C. consulting the job requirements matrix D. developing selection goals

79. The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant’s ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________ interview.  A. situational B. experience-based C. projective D. KSAO-based

80. Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews?  A. The validity of structured interviews is low. B. Situational interviews are less valid than job-related interviews. C. Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews. D. All of the above are true.

81. The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________.  A. positive B. zero C. moderately negative D. very negative

82. Applicants’ reactions to interviews tend to be _________.  A. very favorable B. somewhat favorable C. neutral D. somewhat unfavorable

83. Selection for team contexts ____.  A. is not much different than for selection in general B. should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs C. should not involve members of the team, because that only leads to resentment D. all of the above

84. Discretionary assessment methods are typically highly subjective and rely heavily on the intuition of the decision maker.  True False

85. Contingent assessment methods are always used in the selection process.  True False

86. Studies suggest that drug users are no more likely to be involved in accidents or to be injured at work.  True False

87. Individuals who use drugs have been shown to have higher levels of absenteeism and counterproductive work behaviors.  True False

88. Federal law prohibits drug testing for a majority of jobs.  True False

89. Drug test results can be very accurate with low error rates, if the proper procedures are followed.  True False

90. Some organizations have begun to screen out those who smoke tobacco.  True False

91. Drug testing methods have become so accurate that it is no longer considered necessary to use retesting to validate samples from an initial screening test.  True False

92. Organizations may make medical inquiries or require medical exams prior to making a job offer.  True False

93. A medical examination for employees is defined the same way as for job applicants.  True False

94. Which of the following is true regarding drug testing?  A. Applicants were twice as likely to be tested for alcohol use as drug use. B. The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years C. Upper-level employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees. D. All of the above are true.

95. Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs?  A. Drug testing should be done with all jobs. B. Do not inform applicants of the test results. C. Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal. D. All of the above

96. Drug tests are not common for many jobs because _____?  A. drug tests do not “catch” many people B. the law essentially bans drug tests for all jobs not involving operating a vehicle C. drug tests are extremely expensive D. the tests produce a massive number of false positive results

97. Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer?  A. make medical inquiries B. conduct background checks C. discuss job responsibilities D. none of the above

98. The UGESP addresses the need to determine if a selection procedure is causing adverse impact, and if so, the validation requirements for the procedure.  True False

99. Any selection procedure that has an adverse impact is deemed discriminatory by the UGESP unless it has been shown to be valid.  True False

100. There three types of validity studies considered acceptable by the UGESP include face validity, construct validity, and administrative validity.  True False

101. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities, unless the selection procedure is job-related and consistent with business necessity.  True False

102. An organization may not require medical exams of an applicant, nor make a job offer conditional, pending the results of a medical exam.  True False

103. There are some jobs for which drug and alcohol testing is mandated by law.  True False

104. Records for medical exams of established employees must be kept in relative confidence, although most jurisdictions allow for this information to be shared with supervisors and members of the work group if the employer deems it wise.  True False

105. The best description of UGESP is that they are _____.  A. regulations for drug testing in the workplace B. a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act C. a set of regulations relating only to disabled individuals D. regulations that deal only with gender equity and job selection

106. The UGESP requires employers to ____.  A. keep records based on religion and marital status for all employees B. perform a local validation study for every subgroup of employees C. consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact D. assess employee history of drug abuse

107. Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act?  A. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity B. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities for any reason C. It is unlawful for employers to require employees to physical agility tests in a selection context D. The employer can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if customers have a strong preference for not encountering disabled staff

108. Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer?  A. Questions about history of illegal drug use B. Psychological exams designed to detect mental illness C. Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability D. None of the above