Mark D. Roberts

Mark D. Roberts

The Language of Jesus: Why Does It Matter?

















  • Evan

    You help illustrate the tension between a “translation” of the Bible, a “paraphrase” and an “amplification.”
    Most lay people desire an “accurate” translation, I think. The problem being, as you have shown, there very often is no “word-for-word” translation that will convey the precise thought. In other instances, there is slang or jargon that is highly contextual in the original, and sometimes the best of translators may not be able to discern it for a variety of reasons. I often wonder if 2,000 years from now if scholars will read a dialogue in which someone exclaims, “Cool!” as meaning “Refrigeration!” because they will not know the context.
    So in order to accurately convey the meaning, the translator may have to use multiple words… but at what point have they strayed into becoming a paraphrase? Or an amplification? Indeed, what is the “best” translation? I often think of the word used in John 21 of Peter when Jesus asks him the third time if he loved Him. (And leave aside the translation of “love” in that passage!) I have alternately read that Peter was “sad,” “hurt” and “grieved” (Greek=lupeo.) “Grieved” is probably the closest to what Peter felt of the three, yet the most accurate one-word ENGLISH translation may well be “Peter was crushed”… but that introduces a concept via English (being “crushed” by sorrow) not exactly present in the Greek in order to convey the thought in English. And even at that, my choice of “crushed” would be my subjective one-word interpretation of what John was trying to convey… and it may still not actually be correct. (When I meet him, I will ask him about that! )
    And so it goes with Biblical translations. And English certainly is not static, either, which just adds to the fun. But how do you approach a word-for-word translation without winding up with “the kingdom of heaven”? It is certainly trickier than it appears.
    I may well be previewing some points you have in the queue. We certainly want to be as accurate as possible when trying to follow what God has spoken, so your points are well-made and well-taken.

  • Gary Bell

    I enjoyed your post Mark. Concerning the Greek text of the New Testament, I was given a tract by the member of a “King James only” church recently. The tract said that the 19th century reformulation of the Greek text by Westcott and Hort was adulterated by these liberal men, and that all subsequent modern translations are based on their redaction of the Greek. Therefore, owing to the adulteration of the Greek text, the earlier King James translation was more trustworthy than all modern translations.
    I would think that only a Greek scholar would be able to answer this charge. I was left feeling puzzled about this situation. Certainly the King James version has problems. You can read a passage to church people in the KJ and they will often respond with blank stares because they can’t connect with the 17th century language. Do you have some guidance?

  • James J. DeFrancisco, PhD

    I appreciate your scholarship. Malkutha D’shmaya in Aramaic has a different connotation as you mentioned in the article and can also be rendered “counsel of Heaven” or “guidance from God”. It does not relate to the normal mind set of king, territory, law, and authority as is often taught in Western seminaries.
    KJV only logic is flawed. If you read the tracts and books written by KJV only proponents you will find much circular reasoning, i.e. the core logic is “The KJV is the only authoritative version because it is the authorized version”.

  • Harold A .Hein

    Does it matter what language Jesus spoke? or does it matter more that the Holy Spirit chose Koine Greek for the inspired Scriptures? e.g., what is more important? one’s translation of the Hebrew word in
    Isaiah 7:14 or the Holy Spirit’s definition as given in Matthew 1:23, namely , “virgin” ?

  • Jeff Dixon

    Hi Mark,
    Thanks for your well-written and researched series.
    In one of your posts on the language Jesus spoke, you mention the theory (which you reject) that Jesus taught mainly in Greek and accentuated some comments in Aramaic (quoting Psalm 22 on the cross, raising the girl, etc.), which is why the Gospel writers specifically record these words in Aramaic (at least in some instances as you note).
    I had always assumed Jesus spoke Aramaic, but when I heard this theory a couple of years ago, it made a lot of sense to me. I confess, though, that I have not done enough research about the social context of 1st C. Israel.
    While you raise arguments about how Greek had not fully moved into Galilee, what about Jesus’ later teaching outside of Galilee? What language might he have spoken with the Samaritan woman? What about in Jerusalem? How common would Aramaic have been in these contexts? Would Jesus have been able to reach large audiences with Aramaic in these places, or would he have needed to speak in Greek in these places?
    I also wonder about the story of Jesus reading Scripture in the synagogue. What would he have read? Would this have likely been a Hebrew text or the Septuagint which, I believe, dates to about 200 B.C.
    I’d also appreciate any further academic resources you’d recommend.

  • http://AddaURLtothiscomment J. Morris

    Thank you for your insight and clarification. I’m currently taking a class studying the Synoptic Gospels and one of my classmates asked the question about Mark’s use of the Aramaic words of Jesus in 5:41 and 15:34. Definitely food for thought. Had not considered it before – but I gained quite a bit of insight from your blog.
    Thank you for your participation on the net!!

  • tsakalov

    I enjoy reading your series, sir.

    I really feel blessed for being a Greek thus being able to read the new and the old text of the Bible. In the meantime I study hebrew, in order to understand both Old and New testament in depth.

    Warm Greetings from Greece, Merry Christmas and a Happy new Year I wish!

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