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2010-10-29 18:30:55
Assessment Personality

Assessment & Personality flashcards
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  1. What does self-discrepency theory add to Roger's theory of self?
    The ought self - (the morally desirable self, even if it’s not your ideal self)
  2. According to self-discepancy theory, what is the outcome of discrepancies between your actual self & ideal self?
    dejection-related emotions (depression)
  3. According to self-discepancy theory, what is the outcome of discrepancies between your actual self & ought self?
    Agitation-related emotions (anxiety)
  4. What is the underlying idea of Babara Fredrickson's 2001 broaden-and-build thery?
    That positive emotions can further build human competencies & achievements
  5. What is Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi's concept of flow?
    What occurs when your challenges are exactly in sync with your competencies
  6. What is the issue with positive psychology?
    • 1. creates a standard we can't reach
    • 2. ignores adaptive benefits of negative effect
  7. What is Terror management theory? (Solomon, Greenberg & Pyszczynski)
    Terror created by the awareness of death & desire to live. Suggests that people adhere to cultural worldviews and beliefs in order to suppress death and mortality-related thoughts.
  8. What is the evidence for terror-management theory?
    Experiments which induce mortality salience
  9. What kinds of results have been found from mortality salience?
    • - people prefer own group & reject outgroups
    • - become more protective of cultural icons & leader
    • - more aggressive if political beliefs attacked
    • - give more to charity
    • - increase interest in sex as love not physical
  10. What is Roger's concept of subception?
    Subliminally perceiving something that is discrepant with yourself before it reaches consciousness
  11. What are the 2 defence mechanisms that Roger's proposes? (the way people react when their 'self' is threatened)
    • 1. Distortion (allows experience into awareness, but in a form consistent with the self)
    • 2. Denial (preserve the self from threat by denying it)
  12. What is the Q-sort technique?
    • A set of cards with personality characteristics that the patient sorts from most to least representative of them.
    • Measures self-concept
  13. What age & fixation is Freud's oral stage?
    0-1 years, mouth
  14. What age & fixation is Freud's anal stage?
    2-3yrs, toilet training (retentive/expulsive)
  15. What age & fixation is Freud's phallic stage?
    4-5yrs, masturbation & sexual identity
  16. What age & fixation is Freud's latency stage?
    6yrs-puberty, development continuing but not yet apparent
  17. What age & fixation is Freud's genital stage?
    puberty+, sexual maturity
  18. What is Oedipus complex according to Freud
    Phallic stage fixation - want to marry mother, kill father
  19. What is Electra complex according to Freud?
    Phallic stage fixation - want to love father, reject mother
  20. What did Zajonc's Subliminal perception research show?
    People seem to be subliminally attracted to things they have seen before, even though they don’t remember they’ve seen them
  21. How did Feshbach & Singer (1957) provide evidence for Projection (one of Freud's defence mechanisms)?
    • Induced fear in people through electric shocks
    • told half the people to repress their anxiety.
    • Those who repressed it were then much more likely to see other people as fearful
  22. How did Bargh & Barndollar (1996) provide evidence for Behavioural priming?
    • Gave people a word puzzle which when solved primed them with an achievement type word. Then tested people where achievement is the issue,
    • The primed people did better, even though the priming is sublimnal and they did not remember it
  23. According to attachment theory, how did the Secure (70%) babies behave?
    • Sensitive to the departure of their mother, but greeted her on return,
    • comforted easily & able to return to play
  24. According to attachment theory, how did the Anxious-Avoidant (20%) babies behave?
    • Little protest over separation from mother & when she returns,
    • avoidance – turning, looking or moving away from her
  25. According to attachment theory, how did the Anxious-Ambivalent (10%) babies behave?
    • Difficulty separating from mother & reuniting with her when she returns – mixed please
    • to be picked up & squirming to be put down
  26. According to Hazan & Shaver who state that attachment patterns carry over from childhood, how are relationships of secure people?
    • More happy, friendly, trusting, longer lasting
    • (Mental model of love: it's real & it stays)
  27. According to Hazan & Shaver who state that attachment patterns carry over from childhood, how are relationships of Avoidant people?
    • Less accepting of lovers' imperfections
    • (Mental model of love: cynical, romantic love doesn't last)
  28. According to Hazan & Shaver who state that attachment patterns carry over from childhood, how are relationships of Ambivalent people?
    • Obsessive, preoccupied, extreme emotions, sexual attraction & jealousy, love at first sight
    • (Mental model of love: Falling in love easy, but doesn't last)
  29. What are the 2 most stable romantic pairings of adults with different attachment styles?
    • 1. Secure + Secure
    • 2. Avoidant men + Ambivalent women
  30. What did Fraley & Shaver (1998) find from observing couples in airports?
    That attachment styles can be predicted from the couples parting rituals
  31. What kind of work orientation do Anxious-Ambivalent types have?
    They depend on a high level of praise & fear rejection at work
  32. What kind of work orientation do Avoidant types have?
    They use work to avoid social interaction
  33. What did Eagly and Wood (1999) argued & show regarding societies with greater
    gender equality?
    • That women tend to be relatively less concerned with men’s earning capacity
    • & men were relatively less concerned with housekeeping skills (evolutionary factors moderated by social factors)
  34. Are MZ or DZ twins genetically identical?
    MZ twins (DZ share 50%)
  35. How is h2 (the heritability coefficient) defined?
    • It is defined as the difference in correlation between MZ and DZ twins.
    • The difference between those two is the measure of how heritable aparticular trait is
  36. What was Caspi et al.'s argument regarding a predisposition to depression being partly genetically determined?
    • That some genes influence a person’s tendency to have low serotonergic activity
    • & if you have these genes & exposed to seriously stressful life events
    • -these two together tend to predict the likelihood that you become depressed
  37. About what % of variations in personality traits are due to genetic factors?
    approx 40%
  38. About what % of variations in personality traits are due to the effects of non-shared environments?
    approx. 35%
  39. About what % of variations in personality traits are due to shared environments?
    approx. 5%
  40. What is it that genes determine at birth (that then combines with environment to develop into personality differences)?
  41. What did Richard Davidson find regarding hemispheric dominance for positive emotion?
    Using EEG recordings, that activation in the left frontal regions were associated with approach-related emotions
  42. What did Richard Davidson find regarding hemispheric dominance for negative emotion?
    That right-frontal activation was associated with withdrawal-related emotions
  43. In whom do EEG recordings find decreased left-anterior (frontal) cortical activity?
    Depressed individuals
  44. How do SSRI's alleviate depression?
    By prolonging the action of serotonin (& reduce the span of emotional feelings)
  45. What did Durante, Li & Haselton (2008) find regarding women's ovulatory shifts in clothing preferences?
    Woman at peak fertility/near ovulation (or taking modest doses of testosterone) choose more revealing clothing
  46. What did Unkelbach, Guastella & Forgas (2009) find in their Oxytocin study?
    That those receiving oxytocin had faster & more effective recognition of sexual & relationship words (facilitating the processing of positive social cues for bonding & reproduction)
  47. What is "carthasis" according to Freud?
    An emotional release by talking about one's problems (steam engine metaphor)
  48. Explain the id in Freud's psychoanalytic theory (task & level of consciousness)
    • The id is unconscious
    • the pleasure principle, representing unconscious urges & desires
  49. Explain the ego in Freud's psychoanalytic theory (task & level of consciousness)
    • The ego is partly conscious
    • Operates according to the reality principle & represents the self
  50. Explain the superego in Freud's psychoanalytic theory (task & level of consciousness)
    • The superego is partly conscious
    • It is the moral guardian & represents the ego ideal
  51. What is the main source of neurosis according to Freud?
    The unconscious
  52. What is Freud's Identification defence mechanism?
    Bolstering your self-esteem by affiliating yourself with a larger group or more powerful person
  53. What is Freud's Rationalisation defence mechanism?
    Justifying your behaviour with a false but plausible excuse
  54. What is Freud's Repression formation defence mechanism?
    Behaving in a way that is opposite to your true feelings
  55. What was Simon & Binet's 1905 scale designed to assess?
    Intelligence of children
  56. What IQ test did Yerkes create in 1915?
    The Army Alpha & Beta Tests
  57. What do the Binet-Simon & Yerkes IQ tests have in common?
    Both were used to support eugenics
  58. Why did Weschler have 3 different intelligent tests?
    For different age groups (WPPSI 3-7), (WISC 7-16), (WAIS 16+)
  59. What are the 3 different methods of assessment?
    • 1. Behavioural observation
    • 2. Interview
    • 3. Self-report
  60. What is behavioural observation (in relation to assessment)?
    Process by which individuals are observed in order to attain measures of target behaviours (eg, Mary Ainsworth & attachment style)
  61. What are the pros & cons of unobtrusive observation? (one each)
    • Pro - reduces the biases that result from the intrusion of the researcher or measurement instrument
    • Con - reduce the degree the researcher has control over the type of data collected
  62. What is a likert scale?
    An ordered, one-dimensional scale from which respondents choose one option that best aligns with their view
  63. What are 3 factors to consider when using self-reports?
    • 1. Acquiescent responding
    • 2. Reactivity
    • 3. Accurate introspection
  64. What is acquiescent responding & how is it addressed?
    • The tendency to agree with the question (eg, responding with 6's & 7's for whole scale)
    • Addressed by reverse scoring
  65. What is reactivity? (self-reports)
    • Reactivity is demand characteristics:
    • - social desirability responding
    • - self-promotion
    • - experimenter demand
  66. How is reactivity in self-reports addressed? (4 items)
    • 1. cover stories
    • 2. filler items
    • 3. anonymity assurances
    • 4. nonreactive measures
  67. What is accurate introspection?
    The ability to actually answer the question (some non-conscious processes inaccessible to respondents)
  68. Why does an observed score nearly always not equal the true score?
    Bcos nearly always, Observed score = True score + Error
  69. What are the 2 ways to reduce error?
    • 1. Increase reliability
    • 2. Increase Validity
  70. What are the 2 types of error in measurement?
    • 1. random error
    • 2. systematic error
  71. What is random error?
    • Error from unpredictable influences that vary from measurement to measurement (can go either way)
    • eg, data entry error
  72. What is systematic error?
    • Biases that influence scores in a similar way across multiple measurements (goes in one direction, always up or always down)
    • eg, depression measure also picking up anxiety
  73. Does random error affect reliability or validity?
    Reliability (consistency of measurement)
  74. Does systematic error affect reliability or validity?
  75. What are 3 ways to establish reliability of a test?
    • 1. Careful item selection & scale design (clarity & structure)
    • 2. Controlled test administration (standardised settings & instructions)
    • 3. Use of appropriate scoring procedures (subjective vs. objective measures)
  76. What are 2 important factors of reliability?
    • 1. Temporal stability
    • 2. Internal consistancy
  77. What is temporal stability & what are 2 subtypes of it? (reliability)
    • Temporal stability is whether the test will return similar results over time
    • subtypes are:
    • 1. test-retest
    • 2. alternate forms
  78. What is internal consistency & what are 3 subtypes of it? (reliability)
    • Internal consistency is whether different parts or scoring of the test will return similar results
    • subtypes are:
    • 1. split-half
    • 2. Cronbach's α
    • 3. interscorer
  79. What is alternate forms reliability?
    • (form of temporal stability)
    • Administer 1 form of a test ... wait ... administer another form of same test to same group
  80. What are the drawbacks to assessing temporal stability? (3 things)
    • 1. Cost
    • 2. Carryover effects (eg, practice)
    • 3. Fatigue
  81. What is split-half reliability?
    • (form of internal consistency)
    • Administer test once to a group ... randomly take half of the items ... correlate them with the other half of items
  82. What is Cronbach's α?
    • (form of internal consistency)
    • It is mathematically equivalent to the average of all possible split-half estimates
    • (the extent to which items 'hang together')
  83. What is inter-scorer reliability
    • (form of internal consistency)
    • It is whether two scorers yield the same results
    • (used with subjectively-scored measures)
  84. For general reliability standards, what would an excellent correlation & α be?
    0.9 and above
  85. For general reliability standards, what would an decent correlation & α be?
    Between 0.8 and 0.9
  86. For general reliability standards, what would an acceptable correlation & α be?
    Above 0.7
  87. What are the 2 ways of improving reliability?
    • 1. Increase the number of items
    • 2. Discriminability analysis (exclude items that don't 'hang together')
  88. What is a general definition of reliability?
    The consistency of measurement & freedom from random error
  89. What is a general definition of validity?
    • The accuracy of measurement & inferences made from measurement
    • (ie, are the conclusions well-founded & free from systematic error)
  90. What are the 3 types of validity?
    • 1. Content (eg, does it cover all the aspects of a construct)
    • 2. Criterion (relates to concrete criteria in the real world?)
    • 3. Construct (degree to which it measures the correct construct)
  91. What are the 2 types of criterion validity?
    • 1. Concurrent validity (eg, self-rated depression validated by clinical diagnosis)
    • 2. Predictive validity (eg, entrance exam validated by university marks)
  92. What are 2 types of construct validity?
    • 1. Convergent validity (correlates highly with other measures it should)
    • 2. Discriminant validity (does not correlate highly with other measures it should not correlate with)
  93. What are the 8 distinct intelligences in Gardner's Multiple Intelligences?
    • 1. Bodily-Kinesthetic
    • 2. Musical Rhythmic
    • 3. Intrapersonal
    • 4. Logical-Mathematic
    • 5. Naturalistic
    • 6. Interpersonal
    • 7. Visual-Spatial
    • 8. Verbal-Linguistic
  94. What is deviational IQ?
    Wechsler scored participants on a comparative rating to their age group, which is then converted into an IQ score.
  95. What is the benefits of Wechsler's deviational IQ measures?
    can achieve IQ consistency (IQ stays consistent with normal ageing)
  96. What is the discrepancy model of diagnosis?
    Learning disabilities are diagnosed by noting discrepancies between general ability measure & specific achievement measures
  97. What are the problems with the discrepancy model of diagnosis?
    • 1. Some children don't meet the criteria (LD could affect both general & specific ability)
    • 2. Non-universal application of rules
    • 3. Largely test-based diagnosis
  98. What are the 5 components to the Intraindividual Discrepancy Model?
    • 1. Intraindividual discrepancy (is there difficulty in more than one area)
    • 2. Discrepancy intrinsic to individual (is the discrepancy related to CNS dysfunction or information processing problems?)
    • 3. Related considerations (are other skills intact?)
    • 4. Alternative explanations (Could discrepancy be due to other factors (cultural? economic?)
    • 5. LD diagnosis
  99. What are the 4 branches of the Global EI? (emotional intelligence)
    • 1. Perceiving emotions
    • 2. Using emotions to enhance thinking
    • 3. Understanding how emotions work
    • 4. Managing emotional states

    (assessed by MSCEIT)
  100. What is differential validity?
    A test bias where conclusions are appropriate for one subgroup but not for others (eg, computer testing for IQ in middle class vs. lower class)
  101. How do you assess bias in content validity?
    • 1. Unequal access to information (assessing knowledge not IQ)
    • 2. Unfamiliar question wording (language dependent)
  102. What did McGurk (1953) find regarding content validity for IQ tests?
    Evidence against bias in content validity (after classifying a pool of standardised IQ items in terms of most to least cultural)
  103. How do you assess bias in predictive validity?
    • 1. Calculate predictions using regression line
    • If both groups fit the regression line equally well, not biased
    • If scores for the 2 groups do not cluster around the regression line, biased
  104. How do you assess bias in construct validity? (3 things)
    • 1. Inconsistency in factor analysis (after breaking data down to the basic variables)
    • 2. Inconsistency in rank ordering of difficulty (eg, ask a thai what is the capital of thailand)
    • 3. Inconsistency of convergent/discriminant validity (correlates with what it should, & doesn't with what it shouldn't)
  105. How did the Stanford-Binet change the approach of clinical neuropsychologists? (3 main things)
    • 1. Focus on variability
    • 2. Increased focus on standardisation, reliability & validity
    • 3. Test batteries regarded as better than individual tests (improved diagnostic accuracy, provides global & individual scores, pattern of scores)
  106. What are the purposes of neuropsychological assessment?
    • 1. Diagnosis (brain imaging not answer all questions)
    • 2. Patient care & planning (able to self-care? help carers understand patients)
    • 3. Treatment planning & evaluation (choosing treatment & evaluating benefits)
    • 4. Research (understanding brain-behaviour relationships)
    • 5. Forensic neuropsychology (evidence of brain damage & functional issues?)
  107. Why is neuropsychological assessment still critical for some conditions to be diagnosed?
    • 1. Brain imaging does not identify residual strengths/weaknesses
    • 2. General similarities in pattern of brain function but interindividual differences
    • 3. Discrepancies between anatomic findings & cognitive functioning
  108. What is structural neuroimaging used for? (CT and MRI)
    To locate tumours & areas involved in brain-damage
  109. What is fMRI used for?
    To see which brain areas are active at a particular time
  110. What is retrospective memory?
    Retrograde/anterograde amnesia
  111. What is prospective memory?
    Memory to do something in the future
  112. What is the sensitivity of a neuropsychological test?
    • Ability to correctly diagnose as non-normal
    • "true positive"
  113. What is the specificity of a neuropsychological test?
    • Ability to correctly diagnose as normal
    • "true negative"
  114. What are executive functions?
    • 1. Strategy formation & planning
    • 2. Self-monitoring & self-control
    • 3. Self-initiation of actions
  115. What are 2 main problems in executive function assessment?
    • 1. Novelty critical for validity (cant give same test twice)
    • 2. Data from one source can be problematic (try multiple, eg self/proxy report, clinical assessment, brain imaging)
  116. What did McClelland and Friedman (1952) in their study of 8 Amazon indian societies?
    That level of emphasis on independence during a culture's child-rearing practices is correlated to measures of n-Ach derived from that culture's folk tales
  117. What is Affiliation Motivation?
  118. According to Hill (1987), what are the 4 motives that direct affiliation? (affiliation motivation)
    • 1. Attention
    • 2. Positive stimulation
    • 3. Social comparison
    • 4. Emotional support
  119. Eammons & McAdams' (1991) distinguished 3 types of people with individual differences in striving.. They are?
    • 1. High in Intimacy motivation
    • 2. High in Power motivation
    • 3. High in Achievement motivation
  120. What did Weinberg, Gould and Jackson (1979) find in regards to self-efficacy?
    It can wipe out actual differences in ability (competitive muscular leg endurance task)
  121. How does self-efficacy affect Goal selection, Effort & Performance, Emotion, & Coping?
    • Self efficacy beliefs influence the goals chosen
    • High self efficacy causes greater effort & persistence
    • Tasks approached with better mood
    • More able to deal with stress
  122. What does Reciprocal determinism state?
    Behaviour, personality & the environment are mutual causes of one another
  123. What strategies help children delay gratification?
    • 1. cognitive strategies that distract
    • 2. picturing the rewards as mental photos
    • 3. imagining the marshmallows as non-food (eg, clouds)
  124. What did Shoda, Mischel & Peake (1990) show in regards to delay of gratification scores of preschool children?
    Their delay of gratification scores linked to their cognitive & social competence in adolescence

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