Accuplacer Test

The Accuplacer test is an optional placement test students can take to determine their level of skill and competence in math, reading, and English. It is a multiple choice test with an essay section.

Many high schools, technical schools, two-year colleges, and four-year colleges use this test in conjunction with a student’s academic record and academic goals to place the student in classes appropriate for his or her level and interest. Students do not pass or fail the test; nonetheless, they should remember that the test is assessing their skill levels and should not be taken lightly. The test is a very good tool for advisors and students to use in measuring students’ academic abilities and place them in classes that are not too difficult or too easy.

The Accuplacer test is taken online. It is usually taken at the student’s prospective college or university or at a testing center with a proctor. The test is not timed, so students should not rush through any questions. The average time taken to finish the test is 90 minutes. The test is adaptive, meaning that the student’s answer to a question will determine his or her next question. This adaptability ensures that the test is given at an appropriate, personalized level. Accordingly, every test-taker gets a unique test. Students may not skip or eliminate questions and might have to make educated guesses when they do not know an answer to a question.

Free Accuplacer Practice Test

The best way to study for the Accuplacer test is to take practice tests. It is especially helpful to practice math problems. When choosing an answer from multiple choice options, the student must read every answer carefully and ensure that their choice answers the question. Here are some Accuplacer practice questions similar to those on the test.

Accuplacer Practice Test Math: Arithmetic

1. Add 0.9755 + 1.22 + 3.0005 + 0.0012

A. 5.2017
B. 5.1972
C. 5.2080
D. 5.1967
E. 5.1772

2. 3 x 4 x 2 equals

A. 24
B. 9
C. 14
D. 18
E. 16

3. 84% equals

A. 0.084
B. 8.4
C. 0.0084
D. 0.84
E. 8.04

4. -23 + 11 + -16 equals

A. -28
B. 28
C. 4
D. 18
E. -18

5. 8.46 / 1.5 equals

A. 5.6
B 5.46
C. 5.44
D. 6.54
E. 5.64

6. (6 / 2) – (3 x 0) equals

A. 1
B. 0
C. 3
D. 4
E. 9

7. 1.52 / .1 equals

A. 1.52
B. 15.2
C. .152
D. 152
E. 1.522

8. (4 x 1) + (2 x 3) equals

A. 9
B. 11
C. 10
D. 12
E. 24

9. 7 / (2 + 5)

A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 3
D. -1
E. 1

10. Add 3.2189 + 0.004 – 84.3 + 901.16

A. 988.6829
B. 820.1189
C. 820.0829
D. 819.9893
E. 820.0749

Accuplacer Practice Test Math: Elementary Algebra

11. 4b/2 + 3 = 11 + b

A. b = 4
B. b = 8
C. b = 6
D. b = 11
E. b = 1

12. Frank paid 5% sales tax on his television, which cost $769 before taxes. What did the television cost in total?

A. $838.45
B $38.45
C. $807.45
D. $738.45
E. $769.45

13. 4 > z < 3

A. z = 2
B. z = 7.1
C. z = 8
D. z = 5
E. none of the above

14. Grace worked from 7:00 AM to 6:30 PM. She gets paid $13 per hour and “time and a half” for any hours over 8. How much did she get paid?

A. $152.75
B. $182.25
C. $193.75
D. $175.25
E. $172.25

15. -3 (5 – 2y) =

A. 30y
B. -15 – 6y
C -15 + 6y
D. 9y
E. 15 – 6y

16. 100 pens cost x dollars. How many pens can be purchased for 50 cents, assuming the same rate?

A. 50x
B. 100/x
C. 2x
D. 50/x
E. 500/x

17. If x = 3, then 4x2 + 2x – 5 =

A. 145
B. 3.7
C. 25
D. 50
E. 37

18. Which is not a rational number?

A. 1/2
B. 0.7344
C. -6
D. √9
E. √2

19. A movie theater sold 422 tickets on Friday. On Saturday, they sold 518 tickets. What was the approximate percentage that ticket sales increased on Saturday?

A. 23%
B. 122%
C. 123%
D. 42%
E. 96%

20. 0.45 + 0.35 equals

A. 8.0
B. 0.1
C. 8/10
D. 5/10
E. 7/10

Accuplacer Practice Test Math: College-Level Mathematics

21. 105 is not equal to which of the following:

A. 10•10•10•10•10
B. 100,000
C. 0.01 • 104
D. 102 • 103
E. 0.1 • 106

22. Divide z4 by z-3

A. z1
B. z7
C. z-12
D. z12
E. z-7

23. Multiply 10-3 by 102

A. 10-6
B. 10-5
C. 105
D. 10-1
E. 101

24. .000074 equals

A. 7.4 • 10-4
B. 7.4 • 10-5
C. 7.4 • 105
D. .74 • 10-5
E. .74 • 105

25. Which of the following is not equal to the others?


26. If 8 is 40% of a number, what is 15% of the same number?

A. 20
B. 1.2
C. 3
D. 15
E. 6

27. Which of the following equals x2 – 5x + 6

A. (x – 2) (x – 3)
B. (x – 2) (x + 3)
C. (x – 3) (x + 2)
D. (x + 2) (x + 3)
E. (x + 2) (x – 3)

28. (3x – 4y)2 equals

A. 9•2 -16y2
B. 3•2 -24xy + 4y2
C. 9•2 -24xy + 16×2
D. 9•2 -24xy + 16y2
E. 9•2 + 24xy +16y2

29. Round 556.462 to the nearest tens place

A. 556.46
B. 556.5
C. 556
D. 556.47
E. 560

30. What is the median of these numbers: 2, 3, 5, 6, 6, 9

A. 6
B. 5
C. 5.17
D. 5.5
E. 4

Accuplacer Practice Test: English Proficiency/Sentence Skills

31. Abby ______ to the baseball game.

A. should have went
B. should have gone
C. has already went
D. had already go
E. were going

32. What you do effects me; the affects are everlasting.

A. effects me, the affects
B. affects me, the effects
C. affects me; the affects
D. affects me; the effects
E. effects me, the effects

33. If Sean would have called, Shannon would have picked him up.

A. would call
B. could of called
C. had called
D. would of called
E. had of called

34. I think ___ not okay to lie, even if ____ going to be punished.

A. its / your
B. it’s / your
C. its/you’re
D. it’s / you’re
E. its / it’s

35. By next spring, Jack __________ for two terms.

A. had been senator
B. had been the Senator
C. will be senator
D. could have been Senator
E. will have been senator

36. That’s a good picture of _____; ___ like it.

A. Sofia and I; me
B. I and Sofia; I
C. Sofia and I; I
D. Sofia and me; I
E. Sofia and me; me

37. Teresa does not feel ___ ; she feels ____.

A. good / nauseous
B. well / nauseated
C. good / nauseated
D. well / nauseous
E. good / nausea

For the next three questions, read the underlined sentence and then rewrite the sentence as directed.

38. Because she was so famous, Ashley tried to avoid the paparazzi.

Rewrite, beginning with:
Ashley avoided the paparazzi…
The next words will be:

A. on account of her being
B. being that she was
C. as she were
D. because she was
E. that she was

39. The friends began to gather, and then the party started.

Rewrite, beginning with:
The party started…
The next words will be:

A. and the friends gathered
B. where the friends gathered
C. after the friends gathered
D. although the friends gathered
E. the gathering friends

40. Sydney saw nothing unusual when she went to the park.

Rewrite, beginning with:
Going to the park,…
The next words will be:

A. and seeing nothing unusual
B. then Sydney saw nothing unusual
C. nothing unusual was seen
D. seeing nothing
E. Sydney saw nothing unusual

Accuplacer Practice Test: Reading Comprehension

For the next five questions, read the underlined sentences and then answer the question that follows.

41. Brad Taylor, the star quarterback, is injured this season.
The team does not expect to make the playoffs.

How is the second sentence related to the first sentence?

A. It contradicts the first statement.
B. It analyzes the first statement.
C. It gives an example.
D. It gives an effect.
E. It makes a correction.

42. Spending time volunteering for charity is important to Company X.
Company X offers their employees paid time off to volunteer.

How is the second sentence related to the first sentence?

A. It offers a solution.
B. It explains the first statement.
C. It reinforces the first statement.
D. It reveals the first statement.
E. It debates the first statement.

43. Anthony got a substantial raise at work.
He will now have much more work to do.

How is the second sentence related to the first sentence?

A. It reinforces the first statement.
B. It states a consequence.
C. It expands on the first statement.
D. It contrasts the first statement.
E. It repeats the idea of the first statement.

44. Barry loathes summer.
July is Barry’s favorite month.

How is the second sentence related to the first sentence?

A. It contradicts the first statement.
B. It supports the first statement.
C. It explains the first statement.
D. It develops the first statement.
E. It gives an effect of the first statement.

45. Carrots and apples are very healthy foods.
Dietitians often eat these foods and recommend them to patients.

How is the second sentence related to the first sentence?

A. It parrots the first sentence.
B. It defeats the first sentence.
C. It gives a solution to the first sentence.
D. It disagrees with the first sentence.
E. It supports the first sentence.

Read the following five passages and then answer the questions.

46. Joseph Pilates was born in 1880 in Germany. He was a frail child and wished he could find a way to build up strength. During World War I, he worked as a nurse in the army and developed a set of exercises for patients to increase their strength. After the war, he moved to New York City and developed his method of exercise into what is known as Pilates.

Which of the following is not true based on the passage?

A. Joseph Pilates was born in the 19th century.
B. Joseph Pilates was American.
C. Joseph Pilates lived in New York City.
D. Joseph Pilates was interested in exercise.
E. Joseph Pilates was a veteran.

47. Recycling is the process of taking used materials and transforming them into usable goods. Common items for recycling include plastics, aluminum cans, glass, and paper. Recycling has become popular among consumers within the last thirty years. Recycling can reduce the amount of greenhouse gases in the environment and is a major factor in the field of waste management.

Which of the following is the most accurate?

A. This passage is persuasive.
B. This passage is conflicting.
C. This passage is emotional.
D. This passage is informative.
E. This passage is dramatic.

48. The internet is very important to the modern world. People use the internet for entertainment, communicating, learning, and as a news source. There can also be cons to the internet, as some sociologists worry that people are slowly forgetting how to communicate in person, but the fact remains that the internet is here to stay.

The main idea of this passage is that the internet:

A. weakens society
B. is for people who love technology
C. is an integral part of society
D. is hard to use
E. is used to entertainment

49. Baby carriages were invented in 1848 by Charles Burton. He lived in New York City and faced opposition to his invention from people who felt they were unsafe. He believed in his idea and moved to England, where he opened a factory. He made carriages for Queen Victoria of England, Queen Isabella II of Spain, and other royalty. A factory opened in the United States ten years later but only 75 carriages were sold. Today, baby carriages are extremely popular and almost every baby has at least one.

Which happened first?

A. Queen Victoria ordered a baby carriage.
B. Americans bought baby carriages.
C. Burton opened a factory in America.
D. Burton moved to England.
E. All babies have carriages.

50. National parks are a great destination for family vacations. The National Park Service was established in the early 1900s to protect and preserve national parks. President Franklin D. Roosevelt was especially interested in natural resources and was influential in the organization. Among the most popular national parks are Yellowstone, Yosemite, and Glacier.

What is the main idea of the passage?

A. President Roosevelt was a great president.
B. Background information on national parks
C. Yellowstone is the most popular national park.
D. Parks are a waste of government money.
E. People love parks.

Accuplacer Practice Test: Essay


Explain the topic and either agree or disagree with the statement, offering support to the argument.

52. An education is essential for a person to achieve success.

53. The Constitution should be interpreted literally and cannot change with society.

54. It is beneficial for children to have siblings; only children have many disadvantages in life.

55. Global climate change is real and a problem that needs to be addressed immediately.

Answer Key


1. B
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. E
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. E
10. C


11. B
12. C
13. A
14. E
15. C
16. D
17. E
18. E
19. A
20. C

College Level Math

21. C
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. E
30. D

English Proficiency

31. B
32. D
33. C
34. D
35. E
36. D
37. B
38. D
39. C
40. E

Reading Comprehension

41. D
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. E
46. B
47. D
48. C
49. D
50. B