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2AX5X Vol. 2

Self Test Questions

1.What instrument measures the weight of air? (201) Mercurial barometer.
2.What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level measured in inches of mercury? In psi?(201) 14.7 pounds, and 29.92 inches.
3.What are the two temperature scales that are commonly used? (201) Fahrenheit and Celsius
4.If two aircraft are flying with the same horsepower but at different altitudes, why does the aircraft flying at a higher altitude fly faster than the aircraft flying at a lower altitude? (201) Because at the higher altitude, the air is less dense therefore causing less drag on the aircraft.
1. What is the term for the curve of the surface of an airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing (202) edge? Camber.
2. What aerodynamic forces affect aircraft in flight? (202) Lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
3. How does drag act in relation to relative wind? (202) Parallel.
4. Define AOA. (202) The angle between the mean chord line of an airfoil and the aircraft flight path.
1. How are airframe components joined? (203) By rivets, bolts, screws, welds, or adhesives.
2. What are the five stresses to which airframes are subjected?(203) Tension, compression, torsion, shear, and bending.
3. Which fuselage design does not use formers, frame assemblies, or bulkheads to give shape to the fuselage? (203) The monocoque design.
4. What internal wing components serve as an attachment point for the skin? (203) The ribs and stringers.
5. What type of material is usually used for construction of flight control surfaces? (203) Aluminum alloy.
6. What is used to round out the angle formed between the fixed tail surfaces and the fuselage? (203) Fairing.
7. What structural unit provides a smooth airflow around and into the engine inlet? (203) Engine nacelles.
8. What component controls airflow around the weapons to reduce turbulence in the bay on some bomber aircraft? (203) Bay spoilers or air spoilers.
9. How do doors differ from panels? (203) Doors are hinged.
10. Most transparent structures on an aircraft, such as canopies, windshields, and windows, are made of what two materials? (203) Transparent plastics or safety glass.
11. How do paint removers and stripping compounds affect the plastic facings of a radome? (203) It may adversely affect its electrical properties or strength.
12. How are fuselage station numbers measured? (203) In inches from the reference datum or zero point on or near the aircraft nose.
1. What are the three axes that an aircraft operates around? (204) Longitudinal, lateral, and vertical.
2. What are the lateral control surfaces of the aircraft? (204) Ailerons, spoilers/speed brakes, and wing flaps.
3. What controls all directional movements of aircraft? (204) Primary flight controls.
4. What primary flight control guides the aircraft about the vertical axis? (204) Rudder.
5. Which type of stabilator has both sides connected together so that when one side moves the other side must move in the same direction and amount? (204) Solid type.
6. What is an elevon? (204) It is a combination of an aileron and an elevator.
7. What are five types of wing flaps? (204) Plain, split, fowler, slotted, and leading-edge slats or flaps.
8. What is the difference between leading-edge flaps and wing slats? (204) If the leading edge operates in conjunction with the trailing edge flaps, then you have leading-edge flaps. If they operate independently of the flaps, they are called slats.
9. What is the purpose of speed brakes? (204) Increase drag to slow the aircraft and/or reduce landing distance.
10. List the three types of trim systems. (204) Roll, pitch, and yaw.
11. Which type of flight control system reduces the need for long cables, turnbuckles, quick disconnects, push-pull rods, and the associated flight control hardware? (204) Fly-by-wire.
12. What are the two major parts of the AFCS? (204) Stability augmentation system and the A/P system.
13. What system is used to make bomber aircraft stable for launching weapons? (204) Stability augmentation
14. What auto pilot system mode automatically maintains aircraft speed? (204) Mach hold.
1. Define electricity. (205) A class of physical phenomena arising from the existence and interactions of electric charges.
2. Of what particles are atoms composed? (205) Neutrons, protons, and electrons.
3. List four examples of insulators. (205) Wood, rubber, plastic, and glass.
4. List four examples of conductors. (205) Platinum, gold, copper, and silver.
5. Where do you normally use semiconductors? (205) In solid-state devices.
6. What is EMF? (205) Electromotive force: the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor.
7. Define electrical current. (205) The movement of electrons through a conductor.
8. What factors affect the amount of resistance in a conductor? (205) The type of material used, temperature, size.
9. What unit of measurement is used to express electrical power? (205) Watts.
1. What is a simple definition of magnetism? (206) The ability of a substance to attract.
2. How are artificial magnets classified? (206) Permanent or temporary.
3. What is permeability? (206) The ease of ability to conduct magnetic lines of force.
4. What is residual magnetism? (206) The amount of magnetism that remains in a temporary magnet.
5. How is magnetism induced in magnetic material? (206) Place in a magnetic field or bring it into contact with another magnet.
6. Can magnetic lines of force be insulated? (206) No.
7. What are the three most commonly used shapes of magnets? (206) Bar, ring, and horseshoe.
8. How can a magnet be weakened? (206) Heating or excessive jarring.
9. Define flux. (206) A term for magnetic lines of force.
10. How is electromagnetism developed? (206) By current of electricity.
11. When current flows through a conductor, does a magnetic field exist? (206) Yes.
12. What must you know to apply the “left hand rule”? (206) The direction of the current flow.
13. What rule do you use to determine the flux direction of a wire in a loop? (206) The left-hand rule.
14. How can an electromagnet’s field strength be increased? (206) By using a few turns of wire carrying a larger current or using many turns of wire carrying a small current.
1. What is the purpose of a conductor? (207) Provide a path for electrons to flow with minimum resistance.
2. Why are protective devices installed in aircraft electrical systems? (207) Protect against system overloads and shorts in a circuit.
3. How much time must pass before resetting a trip-free type circuit breaker? (207) After a cooling–off period of approximately 1 minute.
4. What is the purpose of a current limiter? (207) Provide protection against fault currents.
5. What is the purpose of a resistor? (207) Control the amount of current flow in a circuit.
1. Why is alternating current used as the primary electrical power source in aircraft? (208) Less power is lost during transmission and the elimination of insulation and brushes.
2. What is the unit of measurement for frequency? (208) Hertz
3. Define phase relationship. 208) A condition in which two moving objects are changing in, or out, of step.
4. What are the two classifications of AC generation systems? 208) Variable-frequency and constant-frequency.
5. What frequency is used for AC power generation on aircraft? (208) 400 hertz.
6. How is voltage induced in a brush-type generator? (208) DC from an integral exciter generator is passed through windings on the rotor.
7. What are the three generators that make up a brushless AC generator? (208) A permanent magnet generator, an AC exciter generator, and the main AC generator.
8. What weak point was eliminated by the design of a brushless-type generator? (208) Arcing (which more easily occurs in rarefied air).
9. What are the two main components of an AC generator? (208) Rotor assembly and stator.
10. What three components make up the stator? (208) PMG armature, exciter field, and main armature windings.
11. What are the two functions of the CSD governor system? (208) To control the drive output speed and equalize the load between generators operating in parallel.
12. If CSD output rotation drives the generator below 365 Hz, what component removes the generator from the bus? (208) Underspeed switch.
13. If the CSD temperature rises to an overheat condition, what should be done to prevent further damage? (208) Disconnect the CSD.
14. What is installed on most IDGs to provide for easier installation and removal? (208) A quick attach-detach clamp.
15. What are the typical functions of a GCU? (208) Voltage regulation, frequency and load control, real and reactive load division, over/underexcitation protection, over/underfrequency protection, open phase protection, reverse power protection, differential current protection, engine underspeed protect
16. How is voltage regulation and current limiting accomplished in the GCU? (208) By varying the generator excitation field.
17. How does the frequency and load controller for each generator system regulate the frequency of the generator CSD? (208) By controlling the magnetic trim head governor on the CSD.
1. What are the internal components of a battery? (209) Plates, separators, and electrolyte.
2. What are the primary causes of premature failure of a lead-acid battery? (209) Abuse, overcharge, low solution, undercharge, and mountings.
3. What is the fundamental unit of the nickel-cadmium battery? (209) The cell.
4. How are nickel-cadmium cells constructed? (209) By inserting positive and negative plates in plastic cases with nylon and cellophane separators.
5. When does a nickel-cadmium battery’s electrolyte reach its maximum level? (209) When the battery is fully charged.
6. How are motors classified? (209) By voltage, current used (AC or DC), and methods of motor excitation.
7. How can the direction of rotation for a series motor be changed? (209) By reversing the current flow in a field winding or reversing current flow in the armature
8. What advantage does the series motor have over other types of motors? (209) It operates on AC or DC excitation.
9. How is the field winding of a shunt motor connected with the armature? (209) In parallel.
10. What type of T-R is used to charge a nickel-cadmium battery in many aircraft? (209) Charging T-R.
11. What is another name for a T-R? (209) Converter.
1. Define matter. (210) Any substance that occupies space and has weight.
2. Since liquids and gases have many properties in common, how are they frequently classified? (210) As fluids.
3. All matter is made up of what? (210) Molecules
4. Which matter has the property of resisting changes in shape when a force is applied? (210) Solid.
5. When sufficient force to a solid causes distortion, the solid is said to have exceeded what? (210) Its elastic limit.
6. Which factors affect the amount of expansion and contraction of a solid? (210) The amount of temperature change and the expansion characteristics of the solid.
7. What are the most outstanding characteristics of a liquid? (210) Its ability to conform to the shape of its containing vessel and that it has a free surface.
8. For a liquid to transmit a pushing force, what condition must exist first? (210) It must be completely enclosed in a container.
9. What would cause a cylinder of air to increase in pressure when placed in the sun? (210) The air (gas) expands as its temperature increases, and since it is confined by the cylinder, its pressure will increase.
10. What is one of the main differences in the characteristics of gases when compared to liquids? (210) Gases are compressible while liquids are not.
11.1) A measure of quantity. (210) e. Volume.
11.2) The amount of force acting on a unit of area. (210) c. Pressure.
11.3) A substance that is a liquid or a gas. (210) d. Fluid.
11.4)The amount of distance an object moves. (210) f. Stroke.
11.5) The measurement of a surface. (210) a. Area.
11.6) The amount of push or pull exerted on an object. (210) b. Force.
11.7) The movement of a fluid caused by pressure difference. (210) g. Flow.
11.8) Expressed in inches. (210) f. Stroke.
11.9) Expressed in pounds. (210) b. Force.
11.10) Expressed in psi. (210) c. Pressure.
11.11) Expressed in square inches. (210) a. Area.
11.12) Expressed in cubic inches. (210) e. Volume.
12. State the basic principle of Pascal’s Law. (210) When a fluid is confined and force is applied, this force (pressure) is transmitted equally to all points in the system.
13. Under what conditions does Pascal’s Law not apply to fluids? (210) Pascal’s Law does not apply to fluids in motion.
14. State the basic principle of Boyle’s Law. (210) If the pressure on a confined gas varies, its volume will vary inversely in the same proportion as long as the temperature does not change.
15. Using Charles’s Law, explain the effect of heating a gas in a cylinder that has a movable piston. (210) Heating a confined gas will cause an expansion (volume increase) in direct proportion to its temperature change, thus causing the piston to move.
16. What is another name for the Boyle’s–Charles’s law? (210) General Gas Law.
25. What is the mechanical advantage ratio if a 60-pound force is used to raise a 240-pound weight? (211) 4:1.
26. What is the mechanical advantage ratio if a 3-pound force is used to raise 99 pounds? (211) 33:1.
27. A 150-pound weight is placed on a 10-square-inch piston and is then lifted by a force applied to a 2-square-inch piston. What force is required on the small piston, and what is the mechanical advantage? (211) 30 pounds of force, 5:1.
28. A 20-pound force on a 3-square-inch piston can lift how much weight on a 12-square-inch piston? What is the mechanical advantage? (211) 80 pounds weight, 4:1.
29. What is the pressure (psi) on a surface 12 square inches in area and supporting a weight of 216 pounds? (211) 18 psi.
30. How far will an 8-square-inch piston move if a 2-square-inch piston moves 8 inches? (211) 2 inches.
31. What characteristic of a fluid determines its resistance to flow? (211) Viscosity
32. What effect does an orifice have on fluid-flow when compared to a venturi? (211) An orifice will cause more turbulence and thus more energy loss than a venturi because it is not streamlined.
33. How can resistance to flow be reduced? (211) By streamlining the flow.
34. What pressure difference can be observed during fluid-flow through a venturi? (211) There is a pressure drop at the narrow opening (throat) of a venturi as the rate of flow of the fluid increases at this point. The pressure will increase again after passing through the throat.
1. How much fluid should a reservoir hold? (212) Enough fluid to supply the normal operating needs of the system, along with an additional amount to replace fluid lost through minor leakage.
2. Why do nonpressurized reservoirs have space above the fluid? To allow the fluid to purge itself of air bubbles that are picked up from the system.
3. What prevents foreign material from entering the reservoir during servicing? A wire screen.
5. How do you service a pressurized hydraulic reservoir with fluid? Use a portable servicing cart.
6. What unit in the pressurized hydraulic reservoir pressurizes the hydraulic fluid to 5 psi? A piston spring.
7. To service or perform maintenance on an air-pressurized reservoir, what is the first thing you must do? Depressurize the reservoir.
9. How are pumps classified? By their displacement (volume) output.
11. When the hand pump handle is on the retraction stroke, which check valve is closed? The inlet check valve.
12. What indicates that either check valve inside the hand pump has malfunctioned? The hand pump will become completely inoperative.
15. What is the thinned portion on the drive shaft of a gear-type pump called? Shear section.
16. On a vane-type pump, what keeps the vanes against the housing wall? Springs.
17. In the constant-volume piston pump, what drives the cylinder block? Universal link.
19. What does the suction boost pump do for engine-driven pumps? Ensures the engine pumps get an adequate supply of fluid.
20. What regulates pressure in a variable-volume pump? An integral flow control valve (compensator).
22. What position is the Vickers pump’s cylinder block and yoke in when the system is at 0 psi? The extreme angle position, full flow.
23. Do the pistons have a stroke when the Vickers pump reaches the zero flow point? No.
24. What are the two major component groups of the Kellogg pump? The rotating group and the pressure-compensating group.
25. What determines the length of the Kellogg pump’s piston stroke? The angle setting of the cam plate.
26. What is the purpose of the creep plates in Stratopower pumps? Cooler operation.
27. Describe the pistons of the Stratopower pump. The pistons have fairly large hollow centers connected with cross-drilled holes.
28. Which way would you turn the adjusting screw on the Stratopower pump to increase pressure? Clockwise.
29. What is the purpose of a hydraulic motor? To convert hydraulic pressure into rotary mechanical motion.
30. What can be used to control the speed of a hydraulic motor? Flow control valve.
31. Explain the principle of a jackscrew. The screw remains stationary and the nut turns.
Created by: Aaron_Fahr
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