We claim that the only prime number of which the sequence must contain a multiple is $p=2$. To prove this, we begin by noting that

$$
a_{n+1}=\frac{a_{n}\left(a_{n}+1\right)}{2}-10=\frac{\left(a_{n}-4\right)\left(a_{n}+5\right)}{2} .
$$

Let $p>2$ be an odd prime, and choose $a_{1} \equiv-4(\bmod p)$, so $2 a_{2} \equiv(-4-4)(-4+5) \equiv-8(\bmod p)$, whence $a_{2} \equiv-4(\bmod p)$, since $p$ is odd. By induction, $a_{n} \equiv-4(\bmod p) \not \equiv 0(\bmod p)$ for all $n$, and so the sequence need not contain a multiple of $p$.

We are left to show that the sequence must contain an even number. Suppose to the contrary that $a_{n}$ is odd for $n=1,2, \ldots$ We observe that

$$
a_{n+1}-a_{n}=\frac{a_{n}\left(a_{n}+1\right)}{2}-\frac{a_{n-1}\left(a_{n-1}+1\right)}{2}=\frac{a_{n}-a_{n-1}}{2}\left(a_{n}+a_{n-1}+1\right) .
$$

By assumption, $a_{n}+a_{n-1}+1$ is odd for $n=1,2, \ldots$, so this shows that $v_{2}\left(a_{n+1}-a_{n}\right)=v_{2}\left(a_{n}-a_{n-1}\right)-1$, and so there exists $N$ such that $v_{2}\left(a_{N+1}-a_{N}\right)=0$. This is a contradiction, because $a_{n+1}-a_{n}$ is even for $n=1,2, \ldots$ by assumption, and thus completes the proof.

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A sequence $a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}, \ldots$ of positive integers satisfies $a_{1}>5$ and $a_{n+1}=5+6+\cdots+a_{n}$ for all positive integers $n$. Determine all prime numbers $p$ such that, regardless of the value of $a_{1}$, this sequence must contain a multiple of $p$.

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