[Federal Register Volume 88, Number 229 (Thursday, November 30, 2023)]
[Notices]
[Pages 83561-83562]
[FR Doc No: 2023-26304]

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DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY

Coast Guard

[Docket Number: USCG-2023-0825]

Designation of the Coast Guard Academy Athletics Corporation as a
Qualified Organization and Appointment of Dr. Daniel Rose as a Member
of the Board of Directors of the Corporation

AGENCY: Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

ACTION: Notice.

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SUMMARY: The Coast Guard announces the designation of the Coast Guard
Academy Athletics Corporation (CGAAC) as a qualified non-Federal entity
that can receive support from the Federal Government. Dr. Daniel Rose,
Athletics Director of the Coast Guard Academy, has been appointed to
serve as a member on the Board of Directors of the CGAAC. Dr. Rose will
provide oversight of, advice to, and coordination with, the CGAAC. Dr.
Rose will not participate in the day-to-day operations of the CGAAC.

DATES: The appointment was made October 19, 2023.

ADDRESSES: To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being
available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov, type USCG-
2023-0825 in the search box and click ``Search.'' Next, in the Document
Type column, select ``Supporting & Related Material.''

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: If you have questions on this rule,
call or email Commander Jeffrey G. Janaro, Coast Guard Academy,
telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>, email [email protected].

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: The Coast Guard announces the designation of
the Coast Guard Academy Athletics Corporation (CGAAC) as a ``qualified
organization'' under 14 U.S.C. 953. Section 953 allows the Coast Guard
Academy Alumni Association to establish a ``qualified organization''
solely for the purpose of supporting Coast Guard athletics.
    A ``qualified organization'' means an organization (1) that
operates as an organization under subsection (c)(3) of section 501 of
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and exempt from taxation under
subsection (a) of that section; (2) for which authorization under
sections 1033(a) and 1589(a) of Title 10 may be provided; and (3)
established by the Coast Guard Academy Alumni Association solely for
the purpose of supporting Coast Guard athletics.

    The Coast Guard also announces the appointment of Dr. Daniel Rose,
the Coast Guard Academy Athletics Director, to serve on the CGAAC Board
of Directors in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1033. Under 10 U.S.C. 1033
the Secretary of the Department of the Homeland Security is authorized
to appoint, without compensation, an officer to provide oversight of,
advice to, and coordination with, a designated entity, such as CGAAC,
and participation of the member in the activities of the designated
entity, which would not extend to participation in the day-to-day
operations of the entity. This authority of the Secretary is delegated
to the Commandant of the Coast Guard through the Department of Homeland
Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.3 (paragraph II.14).
    The effective date of Dr. Rose's appointment is October 19, 2023.
Dr. Rose will serve in his official capacity as the Coast Guard Academy
Athletics Director, without additional compensation, providing
oversight and advice to the CGAAC. Dr. Rose's participation will not
extend to participation in the day-to-day operations of the CGAAC.

M.W. Hammond,
Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Acting Assistant Superintendent, U.S. Coast
Guard Academy.
[FR Doc. 2023-26304 Filed 11-29-23; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 9110-04-P


[Federal Register Volume 81, Number 146 (Friday, July 29, 2016)]
[Proposed Rules]
[Pages 49902-49903]
[FR Doc No: 2016-17893]

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Proposed Rules
                                                Federal Register
________________________________________________________________________

This section of the FEDERAL REGISTER contains notices to the public of
the proposed issuance of rules and regulations. The purpose of these
notices is to give interested persons an opportunity to participate in
the rule making prior to the adoption of the final rules.

========================================================================

Federal Register / Vol. 81, No. 146 / Friday, July 29, 2016 /
Proposed Rules

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Part 71

[Docket No. FAA-2016-6271; Airspace Docket No. 16-AGL-15]

Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Iron Mountain, MI

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).

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SUMMARY: This action proposes to amend Class E en route airspace around
the Iron Mountain VHF omnidirectional range/distance measuring
equipment, Iron Mountain, MI. This action would add additional airspace
to facilitate the vectoring of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) aircraft
under control of the Minneapolis Air Route Traffic Control Center
(ARTCC) in the Great Lakes area located north and northwest of the Iron
Mountain, MI, VHF Omnidirectional Range/Distance Measuring Equipment
(VOR/DME) navigation aid. This proposed action would enhance the safety
and management of aircraft operations within the National Airspace
System (NAS).

DATES: Comments must be received on or before September 12, 2016.

ADDRESSES: Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of
Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor,
Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590;
telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-
6271; Docket No. 16-AGL-15, at the beginning of your comments. You may
also submit comments through the Internet at http://www.regulations.gov. You may review the public docket containing the
proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in
the Dockets Office between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through
Friday, except Federal holidays. The Docket Office (telephone 1-800-
647-5527), is on the ground floor of the building at the above address.
    FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and
subsequent amendments can be viewed online at http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/. For further information, you can contact the
Airspace Policy Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone:<PHONE_NUMBER>.
The Order is also available for inspection at the National Archives and
Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of
FAA order 7400.9Z at NARA, call<PHONE_NUMBER>, or go to http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal-regulations/ibr_locations.html.
    FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is
published yearly and effective on September 15.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Raul Garza Jr., Central Service
Center, Operations Support Group, Federal Aviation Administration,
Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177;
telephone:<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

Authority for This Rulemaking

    The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is
found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106
describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII,
Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's
authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described
in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section,
the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of
airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient
use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority
as it would establish Class E airspace in the Iron Mountain, MI area.

Comments Invited

    Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed
rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as
they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the
views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing
reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are
specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic,
environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in
triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to
acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with
those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the
following statement is made: ``Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-6271/
Airspace Docket No. 16-AGL-15.'' The postcard will be date/time stamped
and returned to the commenter.

Availability of NPRMs

    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the
Internet at http://www.regulations.gov. Recently published rulemaking
documents can also be accessed through the FAA's Web page at http://www.faa.gov/airports_airtraffic/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.
    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any
comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets
Office (see ADDRESSES section for address and phone number) between
9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal
holidays. An informal docket may also be examined during normal
business hours at the Central Service Center, Operation Support Group,
10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177.
    Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future
NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking<PHONE_NUMBER>, to
request a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed
Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application
procedure.

Availability and Summary of Documents Proposed for Incorporation by
Reference

    This document would amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations
and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15,
2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
ADDRESSES section of this document. FAA Order 7400.9Z lists

Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and
reporting points.

The Proposal

    The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal
Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by amending Class E en route airspace in
the Iron Mountain, MI, area, for the Iron Mountain VOR/DME. The FAA is
proposing to add additional controlled airspace to the southern and
northern boundaries of the Iron Mountain en route airspace area, and
remove exclusionary information from the regulatory text. This proposed
action would provide controlled airspace enabling Minneapolis ARTCC
greater latitude to use radar vectors and altitude changes within the
entire area north and northwest of the Iron Mountain, MI, VOR/DME and
remove unnecessary exclusion language for clarity.
    The FAA also would amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700
feet above the surface at Iron Mountain, MI, to reflect the name change
of the navigation aid from Iron Mountain VORTAC to Iron Mountain VOR/
DME.
    Class E airspace areas are published in Sections 6005 and 6006,
respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective
September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1.
The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be
published subsequently in the Order.

Regulatory Notices and Analyses

    The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an
established body of technical regulations for which frequent and
routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is
non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative
comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a ``significant regulatory action''
under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a ``significant rule'' under
DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,
1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation
as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter
that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is
certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a
significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities
under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.

Environmental Review

    This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in
accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, ``Environmental Impacts: Policies
and Procedures'' prior to any FAA final regulatory action.

List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71

    Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).

The Proposed Amendment

    In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation
Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:

PART 71--DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR
TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS

0
1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as
follows:

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O.
10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.

Sec.  71.1  [Amended]

0
2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order 7400.9Z,
Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and
effective September 15, 2015, is amended as follows:

Paragraph 6006 En Route Domestic Airspace Areas.

* * * * *

AGL MI E6 Iron Mountain, MI [Amended]

Iron Mountain VOR/DME, MI
    (Lat. 45[deg]48'58'' N., long. 088[deg]06'44'' W.)
Thunder Bay Airport, ON, Canada
    (Lat. 48[deg]22'19'' N., long. 089[deg]19'26'' W.)

    That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface
within an area bounded by lat. 47[deg]05'00'' N., long.
086[deg]40'39'' W.; to lat. 47[deg]05'00'' N., long. 088[deg]27'44''
W.; to the Iron Mountain VOR/DME; to lat. 46[deg]16'21'' N., long.
089[deg]47'13'' W.; to lat. 46[deg]52'34'' N., long. 090[deg]13'09''
W. on the eastern boundary of the Wisconsin E5 airspace area; then
northeast along the boundary of the Wisconsin and Minnesota E5
airspace areas to the intersection of the 35 NM radius of the
Thunder Bay Airport; then counterclockwise along the 35 NM radius of
the Thunder Bay Airport to the intersection of the southern boundary
of the Upper Peninsula E6 airspace area; then southeast along the
boundary of the Upper Peninsula E6 airspace area to the point of
beginning.

Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700
Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.

* * * * *

AGL MI E5 Iron Mountain, MI [Amended]

Iron Mountain/Kingsford, Ford Airport, MI
    (Lat. 45[deg]49'06'' N., long. 88[deg]06'52'' W.)
Iron Mountain VOR/DME
    (Lat. 45[deg]48'58'' N., long. 88[deg]06'44'' W.)

    That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface
within an 8.7-mile radius of Iron Mountain VOR/DME, and within 5.2
miles west and 8.3 miles east of the Iron Mountain ILS localizer
south course extending from the 8.7-mile radius to 21 miles south of
the Iron Mountain/Kingsford, Ford Airport, and within 4.4 miles each
side of the Iron Mountain ILS localizer north course extending from
the 8.7-mile radius to 16 miles north of the airport.

    Issued in Fort Worth, TX, on July 18, 2016.
Vonnie L. Royal,
Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center.
[FR Doc. 2016-17893 Filed 7-28-16; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


(1) Any software or data that implements a capability that, by
intended operation, unintended operation, or non-operation, can present
a hazard to the public; and
    (2) The level of criticality of each computing system safety item
identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, commensurate with its
degree of control over hazards to the public and the severity of those
hazards.
    (b) Safety requirements. An operator must develop safety
requirements for each computing system safety item. In doing so, the
operator must:
    (1) Identify and evaluate safety requirements for each computing
system safety item;
    (2) Ensure the safety requirements are complete and correct;
    (3) Implement each safety requirement; and
    (4) Verify and validate the implementation of each safety
requirement by using a method appropriate for the level of criticality
of the computing system safety item. For each computing system safety
item that is safety critical under Sec.  401.7, verification and
validation must include testing by a test team independent of the
development division or organization.
    (c) Development process. An operator must implement and document a
development process for computing system safety items appropriate for
the level of criticality of the computing system safety item. A
development process must define:
    (1) Responsibilities for each task associated with a computing
system safety item;
    (2) Processes for internal review and approval--including review
that evaluates the implementation of all safety requirements--such that
no person approves that person's own work;
    (3) Processes to ensure development personnel are trained,
qualified, and capable of performing their role;
    (4) Processes that trace requirements to verification and
validation evidence;
    (5) Processes for configuration management that specify the content
of each released version of a computing system safety item;
    (6) Processes for testing that verify and validate all safety
requirements to the extent required by paragraph (b)(4) of this
section;
    (7) Reuse policies that verify and validate the safety requirements
for reused computing system safety items; and
    (8) Third-party product use policies that verify and validate the
safety requirements for any third-party product.
    (d) Application requirements. An applicant must:
    (1) Identify and describe all computing system safety items
involved in the proposed operations;
    (2) Provide the safety requirements for each computing system
safety item;
    (3) Provide documentation of the development processes that meets
paragraph (c) of this section;
    (4) Provide evidence of the execution of the appropriate
development process for each computing system safety item; and
    (5) Provide evidence of the implementation of each safety
requirement.

Sec.  450.143  Safety-critical system design, test, and documentation.

    (a) Applicability. This section applies to all safety-critical
systems, except for--
    (1) Highly reliable flight safety systems covered under Sec.
450.145; or
    (2) Safety-critical systems for which an operator demonstrates
through its flight hazard analysis that the likelihood of any hazardous
condition specifically associated with the system that may cause death
or serious injury to the public is extremely remote, pursuant to Sec.
450.109(b)(3).
    (b) Design. An operator must design safety-critical systems such
that no credible fault can lead to increased risk to the public beyond
nominal safety-critical system operation.
    (c) Qualification testing of design. An operator must functionally
demonstrate the design of the vehicle's safety-critical systems at
conditions beyond its predicted operating environments. The operator
must select environmental test levels that ensure the design is
sufficiently stressed to demonstrate that system performance is not
degraded due to design tolerances, manufacturing variances, or
uncertainties in the environment.
    (d) Acceptance of hardware. An operator must--
    (1) Functionally demonstrate any safety-critical system, while
exposed to its predicted operating environments with margin, is free of
defects, free of integration and workmanship errors, and ready for
operational use; or
    (2) Combine in-process controls and a quality assurance process to
ensure functional capability of any safety-critical system during its
service life.
    (e) Lifecycle of safety-critical systems. (1) The predicted
operating environments must be based on conditions predicted to be
encountered in all phases of flight, recovery, and transportation.
    (2) An operator must monitor the flight environments experienced by
safety-critical system components to the extent necessary to--
    (i) Validate the predicted operating environments; and
    (ii) Assess the actual component life remaining or adjust any
inspection period.

    (f) Application requirements. An applicant must submit to the FAA
the following as part of its application:
    (1) A list and description of each safety-critical system;
    (2) Drawings and schematics for each safety-critical system;
    (3) A summary of the analysis to determine the predicted operating
environments and duration to be applied to qualification and acceptance
testing covering the service life of any safety-critical system;
    (4) A description of any method used to validate the predicted
operating environments;
    (5) A description of any instrumentation or inspection processes to
monitor aging of any safety-critical system;
    (6) The criteria and procedures for disposal or refurbishment for
service life extension of safety-critical system components; and
    (7) A description of the standards used in all phases of the
lifecycle of each safety-critical system.

Sec.  450.145  Highly reliable flight safety system.

    (a) General. For each phase of flight for which an operator must
implement flight abort to meet the requirement of Sec.  450.108(b)(1),
the operator must use a highly reliable flight safety system on the
launch or reentry vehicle, vehicle component, or payload with a design
reliability in accordance with this section.
    (b) Reliability. A highly reliable flight safety system must, using
a means of compliance accepted by the Administrator--
    (1) Have a design reliability of 0.999 at 95 percent confidence and
commensurate design, analysis, and testing for the portion of the
flight safety system onboard the vehicle; and
    (2) Have a design reliability of 0.999 at 95 percent confidence and
commensurate design, analysis, and testing for the portion of the
flight safety system not onboard the vehicle, if used.
    (c) Monitoring. An operator must monitor the flight environments
experienced by any flight safety system component to the extent
necessary to--
    (1) Validate the predicted operating environment; and
    (2) Assess the actual component life remaining or adjust any
inspection period.
    (d) Application requirements. An applicant must submit the
information identified below, for any highly reliable flight safety
system:
    (1) Flight safety system description. An applicant must describe
the flight safety system and its operation in detail, including all
components, component functions, and possible operational scenarios.
    (2) Flight safety system diagram. An applicant must submit a
diagram that identifies all flight safety system subsystems and shows
the interconnection of all the elements of the flight safety system.
The diagram must include any subsystems used to implement flight abort
both on and off the vehicle, including any subsystems used to make the
decision to abort flight.
    (3) Flight safety system analyses. An applicant must submit any
analyses and detailed analysis reports of all flight safety system
subsystems necessary to calculate the reliability and confidence levels
required by paragraph (a) of this section.
    (4) Tracking validation procedures. An applicant must document and
submit the procedures for validating the accuracy of any vehicle
tracking data utilized by the flight safety system to make the decision
to abort flight.
    (5) Flight safety system test plans. An applicant must submit
acceptance, qualification, and preflight test plans of any flight
safety system, subsystems, and components. The test plans must include
test procedures and test environments.
    (6) Monitoring plan. An applicant must submit a description of any
method used to validate the predicted operating environments.

Other Prescribed Hazard Controls

Sec.  450.147  Agreements.

    (a) General. An operator must establish a written agreement with
any entity that provides a service or property that meets a requirement
in this part, including:
    (1) Launch and reentry site use agreements. A Federal launch or
reentry site operator, a licensed launch or reentry site operator, or
any other person that provides services or access to or use of property
required to support the safe launch or reentry under this part;
    (2) Agreements for notices to mariners. Unless otherwise addressed
in agreements with the site operator, for overflight of navigable
water, the U.S. Coast Guard or other applicable maritime authority to
establish procedures for the issuance of a Notice to Mariners prior to
a launch or reentry and other measures necessary to protect public
health and safety;
    (3) Agreements for notices to airmen. Unless otherwise addressed in
agreements with the site operator, the FAA Air Traffic Organization or
other applicable air navigation authority to establish procedures for
the issuance of a Notice to Airmen prior to a launch or reentry, for
closing of air routes during the respective launch and reentry windows,
and for other measures necessary to protect public health and safety;
and
    (4) Mishap response. Emergency response providers, including local
government authorities, to satisfy the requirements of Sec.  450.173.
    (b) Roles and responsibilities. The agreements required in this
section must clearly delineate the roles and responsibilities of each
party to support the safe launch or reentry under this part.
    (c) Effective date. The agreements required in this section must be
in effect before a license can be issued, unless otherwise agreed to by
the Administrator.
    (d) Application requirements. An applicant must--
    (1) Describe each agreement in this section; and
    (2) Provide a copy of any agreement, or portion thereof, to the FAA
upon request.

Sec.  450.149  Safety-critical personnel qualifications.

    (a) General. An operator must ensure safety-critical personnel are
trained, qualified, and capable of performing their safety-critical
tasks, and that their training is current.
    (b) Application requirements. An applicant must--
    (1) Identify safety-critical tasks that require qualified
personnel;
    (2) Provide internal training and currency requirements, completion
standards, or any other means of demonstrating compliance with the
requirements of this section; and
    (3) Describe the process for tracking training currency.

Sec.  450.151  Work shift and rest requirements.

    (a) General. For any launch or reentry, an operator must document
and implement rest requirements that ensure safety-critical personnel
are physically and mentally capable of performing all assigned tasks.
    (b) Work shifts and deviation approval process. An operator's rest
requirements must address the following:
    (1) Duration of each work shift and the process for extending this
shift, including the maximum allowable length of any extension;
    (2) Number of consecutive work shift days allowed before rest is
required;
    (3) Minimum rest period required--

    (i) Between each work shift, including the period of rest required
immediately before the flight countdown work shift; and
    (ii) After the maximum number of work shift days allowed; and
    (4) Approval process for any deviation from the rest requirements.
    (c) Application requirement. An applicant must submit rest rules
that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this section.

Sec.  450.153  Radio frequency management.

    (a) General. For any radio frequency used, an operator must--
    (1) Ensure radio frequency interference does not adversely affect
performance of any flight safety system or safety-critical system; and
    (2) Coordinate use of radio frequencies with any site operator and
any local and Federal authorities.
    (b) Application requirements. An applicant must submit procedures
or other means to demonstrate compliance with the radio frequency
requirements of this section.

Sec.  450.155  Readiness.

    (a) General. An operator must document and implement procedures to
assess readiness to proceed with the flight of a launch or reentry
vehicle. These procedures must address, at a minimum, the following:
    (1) Readiness of vehicle and launch, reentry, or landing site,
including any contingency abort location;
    (2) Readiness of safety-critical personnel, systems, software,
procedures, equipment, property, and services; and
    (3) Readiness to implement the mishap plan required by Sec.
450.173.
    (b) Application requirements. An applicant must--
    (1) Demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a)
of this section through procedures that may include a readiness meeting
close in time to flight; and
    (2) Describe the criteria for establishing readiness to proceed
with the flight of a launch or reentry vehicle so that public safety is
maintained.

Sec.  450.157  Communications.

    (a) An operator must implement communication procedures during the
countdown and flight of a launch or reentry vehicle that--
    (1) Define the authority of personnel, by individual or position
title, to issue ``hold/resume,'' ``go/no go,'' and abort commands;
    (2) Assign communication networks so that personnel identified in
paragraph (a)(1) of this section have direct access to real-time,
safety-critical information required to issue ``hold/resume,'' ``go/no
go,'' and any abort commands; and
    (3) Implement a protocol for using defined radio telephone
communications terminology.
    (b) An operator must ensure the currency of the communication
procedures, and that all personnel are working with the approved
version of the communication procedures.
    (c) An operator must record all safety-critical communications
network channels that are used for voice, video, or data transmissions
that support safety-critical systems during each countdown.

Sec.  450.159  Pre-flight procedures.

    (a) An operator must implement pre-flight procedures that--
    (1) Verify that each flight commit criterion is satisfied before
flight is initiated; and
    (2) Ensure the operator can return the vehicle to a safe state
after a countdown abort or delay.
    (b) An operator must ensure the currency of the pre-flight
procedures, and that all personnel are working with the approved
version of the pre-flight procedures.

Sec.  450.161  Control of hazard areas.

    (a) General. The operator must publicize, survey, control, or
evacuate each flight hazard area identified in accordance with Sec.
450.133 prior to initiating flight of a launch vehicle or the reentry
of a reentry vehicle to the extent necessary to ensure compliance with
Sec.  450.101.
    (b) Verification. The launch or reentry operator must perform
surveillance sufficient to verify or update the assumptions, input
data, and results of the flight safety analyses.
    (c) Publication. An operator must publicize warnings for each
flight hazard area, except for regions of land, sea, or air under the
control of the vehicle operator, site operator, or other controlling
authority with which the operator has an agreement. If the operator
relies on another entity to publicize these warnings, it must:
    (1) Determine whether the warnings have been issued; and
    (2) Notify the FAA if the warnings have not been issued so that the
FAA can determine if the launch or reentry can be conducted in a manner
that sufficiently protects the public. This notification must provide
sufficient information to enable FAA to issue warnings to U.S.
aircraft.
    (d) Application requirements. An applicant must submit--
    (1) A description of how the applicant will provide for day-of-
flight surveillance and control of flight hazard areas, if necessary,
to ensure that the presence of any member of the public in or near a
flight hazard area is consistent with flight commit criteria developed
for each launch or reentry as required by Sec.  450.165(b);
    (2) A description of how the applicant will provide for any
publication of flight hazard areas necessary to meet the requirements
of this section; and
    (3) A description of how the applicant will establish flight commit
criteria based on the results of its toxic release hazard analysis,
toxic containment, or toxic risk assessment for any necessary
evacuation of the public from any toxic hazard area.

Sec.  450.163  Lightning hazard mitigation.

    (a) Lightning hazard mitigation. An operator must--
    (1) Establish flight commit criteria that mitigate the potential
for a launch or reentry vehicle intercepting or initiating a direct
lightning strike, or encountering a nearby discharge, using a means of
compliance accepted by the Administrator; or
    (2) Use a vehicle designed to protect safety-critical systems in
the event of a direct lightning strike or nearby discharge.
    (b) Application requirements. (1) An applicant electing to comply
with paragraph (a)(1) of this section must submit flight commit
criteria that mitigate the potential for a launch or reentry vehicle
intercepting or initiating a direct lightning strike, or encountering a
nearby lightning discharge.
    (2) An applicant electing to comply with paragraph (a)(2) of this
section must submit documentation providing evidence that the vehicle
is designed to protect safety-critical systems against the effects of a
direct lightning strike or nearby discharge.

Sec.  450.165  Flight commit criteria.

    (a) General. For each launch or reentry, an operator must establish
and observe flight commit criteria that identify each condition
necessary prior to flight to satisfy the requirements of Sec.  450.101,
and must include:
    (1) Surveillance of any region of land, sea, or air in accordance
with Sec.  450.161;
    (2) Monitoring of any meteorological condition necessary to--
    (i) Be consistent with any safety analysis required by this part;
and
    (ii) If necessary in accordance with Sec.  450.163, mitigate the
potential for a launch or reentry vehicle intercepting a lightning
strike, or encountering a nearby discharge;

    (3) Implementation of any launch or reentry window closure in the
launch or reentry window for the purpose of collision avoidance in
accordance with Sec.  450.169;
    (4) Confirmation that any safety-critical system is ready for
flight;
    (5) Confirmation from the FAA that the risk to critical assets
satisfies the requirements of Sec.  450.101(a)(4) or (b)(4);
    (6) For any reentry vehicle, except a suborbital vehicle,
monitoring by the operator or an onboard system that the status of
safety-critical systems is healthy before enabling reentry flight, to
assure the vehicle can reenter safely to Earth; and
    (7) Any other hazard controls derived from any safety analysis
required by this part.
    (b) Application requirements. An applicant must submit a list of
all flight commit criteria.

Sec.  450.167  Tracking.

    (a) General. During the flight of a launch or reentry vehicle, an
operator must measure and record in real time the position and velocity
of the vehicle. The system used to track the vehicle must provide data
to predict the expected impact locations of all stages and components,
and to obtain vehicle performance data for comparison with the pre-
flight performance predictions.
    (b) Application requirements. An applicant must identify and
describe each method or system used to meet the tracking requirements
of paragraph (a) of this section.

Sec.  450.169  Launch and reentry collision avoidance analysis
requirements.

    (a) Criteria. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section,
for an orbital or suborbital launch or reentry, an operator must
establish window closures needed to ensure that the launch or reentry
vehicle, any jettisoned components, or payloads meet the following
requirements with respect to orbiting objects, not including any object
being launched or reentered.
    (1) For inhabitable objects, one of three criteria below must be
met:
    (i) The probability of collision between the launching or
reentering objects and any inhabitable object must not exceed 1 x
10-\6\;
    (ii) The launching or reentering objects must maintain an
ellipsoidal separation distance of 200 km in-track and 50 km cross-
track and radially from the inhabitable object; or
    (iii) The launching or reentering objects must maintain a spherical
separation distance of 200 km from the inhabitable object.
    (2) For objects that are neither orbital debris nor inhabitable,
one of the two criteria below must be met:
    (i) The probability of collision between the launching or
reentering objects and any object must not exceed 1 x
10-\5\; or
    (ii) The launching or reentering objects must maintain a spherical
separation distance of 25 km from the object.
    (3) For all other known orbital debris identified by the FAA or
other Federal Government entity as large objects with radar cross
section greater than 1 m\2\ and medium objects with radar cross section
0.1 m\2\ to 1 m\2\:
    (i) The probability of collision between the launching or
reentering objects and any known orbital debris must not exceed 1 x
10-\5\; or
    (ii) The launching or reentering objects must maintain a spherical
separation distance of 2.5 km.
    (b) Screening time. A launch or reentry operator must ensure the
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are met as follows:
    (1) Through the entire segment of flight of a suborbital launch
vehicle above 150 km;
    (2) For an orbital launch, during ascent from a minimum of 150 km
to initial orbital insertion and for a minimum of 3 hours from liftoff;
    (3) For reentry, during descent from initial reentry burn to 150 km
altitude; and
    (4) For disposal, during descent from initial disposal burn to 150
km altitude.
    (c) Rendezvous. Planned rendezvous operations that occur within the
screening time frame are not considered a violation of collision
avoidance if the involved operators have pre-coordinated the rendezvous
or close approach.
    (d) Exception. A launch collision avoidance analysis is not
required for any launched object if the maximum planned altitude by
that object is less than 150 km.
    (e) Analysis. Collision avoidance analysis must be obtained for
each launch or reentry from a Federal entity identified by the FAA, or
another entity agreed to by the Administrator.
    (1) An operator must use the results of the collision avoidance
analysis to establish flight commit criteria for collision avoidance;
and
    (2) The collision avoidance analysis must account for uncertainties
associated with launch or reentry vehicle performance and timing, and
ensure that each window closure incorporates all additional time
periods associated with such uncertainties.
    (f) Timing and information required. An operator must prepare a
collision avoidance analysis worksheet for each launch or reentry using
a standardized format that contains the input data required by appendix
A to this part, as follows:
    (1) Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) and (ii) of this
section, an operator must file the input data with an entity identified
in paragraph (e) of this section and the FAA at least 7 days before the
first attempt at the flight of a launch vehicle or the reentry of a
reentry vehicle.
    (i) Operators that have never received a launch or reentry
conjunction assessment from the entity identified in paragraph (e) of
this section, must file the input data at least 15 days in advance.
    (ii) The Administrator may agree to an alternative time frame in
accordance with Sec.  404.15;
    (2) An operator must obtain a collision avoidance analysis
performed by an entity identified in paragraph (e) of this section, no
later than 3 hours before the beginning of a launch or reentry window;
and
    (3) If an operator needs an updated collision avoidance analysis
due to a launch or reentry delay, the operator must file the request
with the entity identified in paragraph (e) of this section and the FAA
at least 12 hours prior to the beginning of the new launch or reentry
window.

Sec.  450.171  Safety at end of launch.

    (a) Orbital debris mitigation. An operator must ensure for any
proposed launch that for all vehicle stages or components that reach
Earth orbit--
    (1) There is no unplanned physical contact between the vehicle or
any of its components and the payload after payload separation;
    (2) Debris generation does not result from the conversion of energy
sources into energy that fragments the vehicle or its components.
Energy sources include chemical, pressure, and kinetic energy; and
    (3) For all vehicle stages or components that are left in orbit,
stored energy is removed by depleting residual fuel and leaving all
fuel line valves open, venting any pressurized system, leaving all
batteries in a permanent discharge state, and removing any remaining
source of stored energy.
    (b) Application requirement. An applicant must demonstrate
compliance with the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section.

Sec.  450.173  Mishap plan--reporting, response, and investigation
requirements.

    (a) General. An operator must report, respond to, and investigate
mishaps, as

defined in Sec.  401.7 of this chapter, in accordance with paragraphs
(b) through (g) of this section using a plan or other written means.
    (b) Responsibilities. An operator must document--
    (1) Responsibilities for personnel assigned to implement the
requirements of this section;
    (2) Reporting responsibilities for personnel assigned to conduct
investigations and for anyone retained by the operator to conduct or
participate in investigations; and
    (3) Allocation of roles and responsibilities between the launch
operator and any site operator for reporting, responding to, and
investigating any mishap during ground activities at the site.
    (c) Mishap reporting requirements. An operator must--
    (1) Immediately notify the FAA Washington Operations Center in case
of a mishap that involves a fatality or serious injury (as defined in
49 CFR 830.2);
    (2) Notify within 24 hours the FAA Washington Operations Center in
the case of a mishap that does not involve a fatality or serious injury
(as defined in 49 CFR 830.2); and
    (3) Submit a written preliminary report to the FAA Office of
Commercial Space Transportation within five days of any mishap. The
preliminary report must include the following information, as
applicable:
    (i) Date and time of the mishap;
    (ii) Description of the mishap and sequence of events leading to
the mishap, to the extent known;
    (iii) Intended and actual location of the launch or reentry or
other landing on Earth;
    (iv) Hazardous debris impact points, including those outside a
planned landing site or designated hazard area;
    (v) Identification of the vehicle;
    (vi) Identification of any payload;
    (vii) Number and general description of any fatalities or injuries;
    (viii) Description and estimated costs of any property damage;
    (ix) Identification of hazardous materials, as defined in Sec.
401.7 of this chapter, involved in the event, whether on the vehicle,
any payload, or on the ground;
    (x) Action taken by any person to contain the consequences of the
event;
    (xi) Weather conditions at the time of the event; and
    (xii) Potential consequences for other similar vehicles, systems,
or operations.
    (d) Emergency response requirements. An operator must--
    (1) Activate emergency response services to protect the public and
property following a mishap as necessary including, but not limited to:
    (i) Evacuating and rescuing members of the public, taking into
account debris dispersion and toxic plumes; and
    (ii) Extinguishing fires;
    (2) Maintain existing hazard area surveillance and clearance as
necessary to protect public safety;
    (3) Contain and minimize the consequences of a mishap, including:
    (i) Securing impact areas to ensure that no members of the public
enter;
    (ii) Safely disposing of hazardous materials; and
    (iii) Controlling hazards at the site or impact areas.
    (4) Preserve data and physical evidence; and
    (5) Implement agreements with government authorities and emergency
response services, as necessary, to satisfy the requirements of this
section.
    (e) Mishap investigation requirements. In the event of a mishap, an
operator must--
    (1) Investigate the root causes of the mishap; and
    (2) Report investigation results to the FAA.
    (f) Preventative measures. An operator must identify and implement
preventive measures for avoiding recurrence of the mishap prior to the
next flight, unless otherwise approved by the Administrator.
    (g) Mishap records. An operator must maintain records associated
with the mishap in accordance with Sec.  450.219(b).
    (h) Application requirements. An applicant must submit the plan or
other written means required by this section.

Sec.  450.175  Test-induced damage.

    (a) Applicability. This section applies to license applicants or
operators seeking an optional test-induced damage exception.
    (b) Coordination of potential test-induced damage. Test-induced
damage is not a mishap if all of the following are true:
    (1) A license applicant or operator coordinates potential test-
induced damage with the FAA before the planned activity, and with
sufficient time for the FAA to evaluate the operator's proposal during
the application process or as a license modification;
    (2) The test-induced damage did not result in any of the following:
    (i) Serious injury or fatality (as defined in 49 CFR 830.2);
    (ii) Damage to property not associated with the licensed activity;
or
    (iii) Hazardous debris leaving the pre-defined hazard area; and
    (3) The test-induced damage falls within the scope of activities
coordinated with the FAA in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
    (c) Application requirements. An applicant must submit the
following information--
    (1) Test objectives;
    (2) Test limits;
    (3) Expected outcomes;
    (4) Potential risks, including the applicant's best understanding
of the uncertainties in environments, test limits, or system
performance;
    (5) Applicable procedures;
    (6) Expected time and duration of the test; and
    (7) Additional information as required by the FAA to ensure
protection of public health and safety, safety of property, and the
national security and foreign policy interests of the United States.

Sec.  450.177  Unique safety policies, requirements, and practices.

    (a) Unique hazards. An operator must review operations, system
designs, analysis, and testing, and identify any unique hazards not
otherwise addressed by this part. An operator must implement any unique
safety policy, requirement, or practice needed to protect the public
from the unique hazard.
    (b) Unique requirements. The FAA may identify and impose a unique
policy, requirement, or practice as needed to protect the public health
and safety.
    (c) Application requirements. An applicant must--
    (1) Identify any unique safety policy, requirement, or practice
necessary in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, and
demonstrate that each unique safety policy, requirement, or practice
protects public health and safety.
    (2) Demonstrate compliance with each unique safety policy,
requirement, or practice imposed by the FAA in accordance with
paragraph (b) of this section.

Ground Safety

Sec.  450.179  Ground safety--general.

    (a) At a U.S. launch or reentry site, an operator must protect the
public and property from adverse effects of hazardous operations and
systems associated with--
    (1) Preparing a launch vehicle for flight;
    (2) Returning a launch or reentry vehicle to a safe condition after
landing, or after an aborted launch attempt; and
    (3) Returning a site to a safe condition.
    (b) An operator is not required to comply with Sec. Sec.  450.181
through 450.189 of this part if:

    (1) The launch or reentry is being conducted from a Federal launch
or reentry site;
    (2) The operator has a written agreement with the Federal launch or
reentry site for the provision of ground safety services and oversight;
and
    (3) The Administrator has determined that the Federal launch or
reentry site's ground safety processes, requirements, and oversight are
not inconsistent with the Secretary's statutory authority over
commercial space activities.
    (c) In making the determination required by paragraph (b)(3) of
this section, the Administrator will consider the nature and frequency
of launch and reentry activities conducted from the Federal launch or
reentry site, coordination between the FAA and the Federal launch or
reentry site safety personnel, and the Administrator's knowledge of the
Federal launch or reentry site's requirements.

Sec.  450.181  Coordination with a site operator.

    (a) General. For a launch or reentry conducted from or to a Federal
launch or reentry site or a site licensed under part 420 or 433 of this
chapter, an operator must coordinate with the site operator to--
    (1) Ensure public access is controlled where and when necessary to
protect public safety;
    (2) Ensure launch or reentry operations are coordinated with other
launch and reentry operators and other affected parties to prevent
unsafe interference;
    (3) Designate any ground hazard area that affects the operations of
a launch or reentry site; and
    (4) Ensure a prompt and effective response is undertaken in the
event of a mishap that could impact the safety of the public and
property.
    (b) Licensed site operator. For a launch or reentry conducted from
or to a site licensed under part 420 or 433 of this chapter, an
operator must also coordinate with the site operator to establish roles
and responsibilities for reporting, responding to, and investigating
any mishap during ground activities at the site.
    (c) Application requirement. An applicant must describe how it is
coordinating with a Federal or licensed launch or reentry site operator
in compliance with this section.

Sec.  450.183  Explosive site plan.

    (a) Explosive siting requirements. For a launch or reentry
conducted from or to a site exclusive to its own use, an operator must
comply with the explosive siting requirements of Sec. Sec.  420.63,
420.65, 420.66, 420.67, 420.69, and 420.70 of this chapter.
    (b) Application requirement. An applicant must submit an explosive
site plan in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.

Sec.  450.185  Ground hazard analysis.

    An operator must perform and document a ground hazard analysis, and
continue to maintain it throughout the lifecycle of the launch or
reentry system. The analysis must--
    (a) Hazard identification. Identify system and operation hazards
posed by the vehicle and ground hardware, including site and ground
support equipment. Hazards identified must include the following:
    (1) System hazards, including:
    (i) Vehicle over-pressurization;
    (ii) Sudden energy release, including ordnance actuation;
    (iii) Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation;
    (iv) Fire or deflagration;
    (v) Radioactive materials;
    (vi) Toxic release;
    (vii) Cryogens;
    (viii) Electrical discharge; and
    (ix) Structural failure.
    (2) Operation hazards, including:
    (i) Propellant handling and loading;
    (ii) Transporting of vehicle or vehicle components;
    (iii) Vehicle testing; and
    (iv) Vehicle or system activation.
    (b) Hazard assessment. Assess each hazard's likelihood and
severity.
    (c) Risk acceptability criteria. Ensure that the risk associated
with each hazard meets the following criteria:
    (1) The likelihood of any hazardous condition that may cause death
or serious injury to the public must be extremely remote; and
    (2) The likelihood of any hazardous condition that may cause major
damage to property not associated with the launch or reentry must be
remote.
    (d) Risk mitigation. Identify and describe the risk elimination and
mitigation measures required to satisfy paragraph (c) of this section.
    (e) Validation and verification. Document that the risk elimination
and mitigation measures achieve the risk levels of paragraph (c) of
this section through validation and verification. Verification
includes:
    (1) Analysis;
    (2) Test;
    (3) Demonstration; or
    (4) Inspection.
    (f) Application requirements. An applicant must submit--
    (1) A description of the methodology used to perform the ground
hazard analysis;
    (2) A list of all systems and operations that may cause a hazard
involving the vehicle or any payload; and
    (3) The ground hazard analysis products of paragraphs (a) through
(e) of this section, including data that verifies the risk elimination
and mitigation measures.

Sec.  450.187  Toxic hazards mitigation for ground operations.

    (a) Applicability. (1) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(2),
this section applies to any launch or reentry vehicle, including all
vehicle components and payloads, that use toxic propellants or other
toxic chemicals.
    (2) No toxic release hazard analysis is required for kerosene-based
fuels, unless the Administrator determines that an analysis is required
to protect public safety.
    (b) General. An operator must--
    (1) Conduct a toxic release hazard analysis in accordance with
paragraph (c) of this section;
    (2) Manage the risk of casualties that could arise from the
exposure to toxic release through one of the following means:
    (i) Contain hazards caused by toxic release in accordance with
paragraph (d) of this section; or
    (ii) Perform a toxic risk assessment, in accordance with paragraph
(e) of this section, that demonstrates compliance with the risk
criteria of Sec.  450.185(c).
    (3) Establish ground hazard controls based on the results of its
toxic release hazard analysis and toxic containment or toxic risk
assessment for any necessary evacuation of the public from any toxic
hazard area.
    (c) Toxic release hazard analysis. A toxic release hazard analysis
must--
    (1) Account for any toxic release that could occur during nominal
or non-nominal launch or reentry ground operations;
    (2) Include a worst-case release scenario analysis or a maximum-
credible release scenario analysis for each process that involves a
toxic propellant or other chemical;
    (3) Determine if toxic release can occur based on an evaluation of
the chemical compositions and quantities of propellants, other
chemicals, vehicle materials, and projected combustion products, and
the possible toxic release scenarios;
    (4) Account for both normal combustion products and any unreacted
propellants and phase change or chemical derivatives of released
substances; and
    (5) Account for any operational constraints and emergency
procedures

that provide protection from toxic release.
    (d) Toxic containment. An operator using toxic containment must
manage the risk of casualty from the exposure to toxic release either
by--
    (1) Evacuating, or being prepared to evacuate, the public from any
toxic hazard area in the event of a worst-case release or maximum
credible release scenario; or
    (2) Employing meteorological constraints to limit a ground
operation to times during which prevailing winds and other conditions
ensure that the public would not be exposed to toxic concentrations and
durations greater than accepted toxic thresholds for acute casualty in
the event of a worst-case release or maximum credible release scenario.
    (e) Toxic risk assessment. An operator using toxic risk assessment
must manage the risk from any toxic release hazard and demonstrate
compliance with the criteria in Sec.  450.185(c). A toxic risk
assessment must--
    (1) Account for airborne concentration and duration thresholds of
toxic propellants or other chemicals. For any toxic propellant, other
chemicals, or combustion product, an operator must use airborne toxic
concentration and duration thresholds identified in a means of
compliance accepted by the Administrator;
    (2) Account for physical phenomena expected to influence any toxic
concentration and duration in the area surrounding the potential
release site;
    (3) Determine a toxic hazard area for each process surrounding the
potential release site for each toxic propellant or other chemical
based on the amount and toxicity of the propellant or other chemical,
the exposure duration, and the meteorological conditions involved;
    (4) Account for all members of the public that may be exposed to
the toxic release; and
    (5) Account for any risk mitigation measures applied in the risk
assessment.
    (f) Application requirements. An applicant must submit:
    (1) The identity of the toxic propellant, chemical, or combustion
products or derivatives in the possible toxic release;
    (2) The applicant's selected airborne toxic concentration and
duration thresholds;
    (3) The meteorological conditions for the atmospheric transport and
buoyant cloud rise of any toxic release from its source to downwind
receptor locations;
    (4) Characterization of the terrain, as input for modeling the
atmospheric transport of a toxic release from its source to downwind
receptor locations;
    (5) The identity of the toxic dispersion model used, and any other
input data;
    (6) Representative results of an applicant's toxic dispersion
modeling to predict concentrations and durations at selected downwind
receptor locations, to determine the toxic hazard area for a released
quantity of the toxic substance;
    (7) For toxic release hazard analysis in accordance with paragraph
(c) of this section:
    (i) A description of the failure modes and associated relative
probabilities for potential toxic release scenarios used in the risk
evaluation; and
    (ii) The methodology and representative results of an applicant's
determination of the worst-case or maximum-credible quantity of any
toxic release that might occur during ground operations;
    (8) For toxic containment in accordance with paragraph (d) of this
section, identify the evacuation plans or meteorological constraints
and associated ground hazard controls needed to ensure that the public
will not be within any toxic hazard area in the event of a worst-case
release or maximum credible release scenario.
    (9) For toxic risk assessment in accordance with paragraph (e) of
this section:
    (i) A demonstration that the risk criteria in Sec.  450.185(c) will
be met;
    (ii) The population characteristics in receptor locations that are
identified by toxic dispersion modeling as toxic hazard areas;
    (iii) A description of any risk mitigation measures applied in the
toxic risk assessment; and
    (iv) A description of the population exposure input data used in
accordance with Sec.  450.123.

Sec.  450.189  Ground safety prescribed hazard controls.

    (a) General. In addition to the hazard controls derived from an
operator's ground hazard analysis and toxic hazard analysis, an
operator must comply with paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.
    (b) Protection of public on the site. An operator must document a
process for protecting members of the public who enter any area under
the control of a launch or reentry operator, including:
    (1) Procedures for identifying and tracking the public while on the
site; and
    (2) Methods the operator uses to protect the public from hazards in
accordance with the ground hazard analysis and toxic hazard analysis.
    (c) Countdown abort. Following a countdown abort or recycle
operation, an operator must establish, maintain, and perform procedures
for controlling hazards related to the vehicle and returning the
vehicle, stages, or other flight hardware and site facilities to a safe
condition. When a launch vehicle does not liftoff after a command to
initiate flight was sent, an operator must--
    (1) Ensure that the vehicle and any payload are in a safe
configuration;
    (2) Prohibit entry of the public into any identified hazard areas
until the site is returned to a safe condition; and
    (3) Maintain and verify that any flight safety system remains
operational until verification that the launch vehicle does not
represent a risk of inadvertent flight.
    (d) Fire suppression. An operator must have reasonable precautions
in place to report and control any fire caused by licensed activities.
    (e) Emergency procedures. An operator must have general emergency
procedures that apply to any emergencies not covered by the mishap plan
of Sec.  450.173 that may create a hazard to the public.
    (f) Application requirement. An applicant must submit the process
for protecting members of the public who enter any area under the
control of a launch or reentry operator in accordance with paragraph
(b) of this section.

Subpart D--Terms and Conditions of a Vehicle Operator License

Sec.  450.201  Responsibility for public safety and safety of property.

    A licensee is responsible for ensuring public safety and safety of
property during the conduct of a licensed launch or reentry.

Sec.  450.203  Compliance.

    A licensee must conduct a licensed launch or reentry in accordance
with representations made in its license application, the requirements
of subparts C and D of this part, and the terms and conditions
contained in the license. A licensee's failure to act in accordance
with the representations made in the license application, the
requirements of subparts C and D of this part, and the terms and
conditions contained in the license, is sufficient basis for the
revocation of a license or other appropriate enforcement action.

Sec.  450.205  Financial responsibility requirements.

    A licensee must comply with financial responsibility requirements
of part 440 of this chapter and as specified in a license or license
order.

Sec.  450.207  Human spaceflight requirements.

    A licensee conducting a launch or reentry with a human being on
board the vehicle must comply with human spaceflight requirements of
part 460 of this chapter as specified in a license or license order.

Sec.  450.209  Compliance monitoring.

    (a) A licensee must allow access by, and cooperate with, Federal
officers or employees or other individuals authorized by the FAA to
observe any of its activities, or any of its contractors' or
subcontractors' activities, associated with the conduct of a licensed
launch or reentry.
    (b) For each licensed launch or reentry, a licensee must provide
the FAA with a console for monitoring the progress of the countdown and
communication on all channels of the countdown communications network,
unless the licensee has another acceptable means. A licensee must also
provide the FAA with the capability to communicate with the mission
director designated by Sec.  450.103(a)(1).

Sec.  450.211  Continuing accuracy of license application; application
for modification of license.

    (a) A licensee is responsible for the continuing accuracy of
representations contained in its application for the entire term of the
license.
    (b) After a license has been issued, a licensee must apply to the
FAA for modification of the license if--
    (1) The licensee proposes to conduct a launch or reentry in a
manner not authorized by the license; or
    (2) Any representation contained in the license application that is
material to public health and safety or the safety of property is no
longer accurate and complete or does not reflect the licensee's
procedures governing the actual conduct of a launch or reentry. A
change is material to public health and safety or the safety of
property if it alters or affects--
    (i) The class of payload;
    (ii) The type of launch or reentry vehicle;
    (iii) The type or quantity of hazardous material;
    (iv) The flight trajectory;
    (v) The launch site or reentry site or other landing site; or
    (vi) Any system, policy, procedure, requirement, criteria, or
standard that is safety critical.
    (c) An application to modify a license must be prepared and
submitted in accordance with part 413 of this chapter. If requested
during the application process, the FAA may approve an alternate method
for requesting license modifications. The licensee must indicate any
part of its license or license application that would be changed or
affected by a proposed modification.
    (d) Upon approval of a modification, the FAA issues either a
written approval to the licensee or a license order amending the
license if a stated term or condition of the license is changed, added,
or deleted. An approval has the full force and effect of a license
order and is part of the licensing record.

Sec.  450.213  Pre-flight reporting.

    (a) Reporting method. A licensee must send the information in this
section as an email attachment to<EMAIL_ADDRESS>or other
method as agreed to by the Administrator in the license.
    (b) Mission information. A licensee must submit to the FAA the
following mission-specific information no less than 60 days before each
mission conducted under the license, unless the Administrator agrees to
a different time frame in accordance with Sec.  404.15 in the license,
except when the information was provided in the license application:
    (1) Payload information in accordance with Sec.  450.43(i); and
    (2) Planned mission information, including the vehicle, launch
site, planned flight path, staging and impact locations, each payload
delivery point, intended reentry or landing sites including any
contingency abort location, and the location of any disposed launch or
reentry vehicle stage or component that is deorbited.
    (c) Flight abort and flight safety analysis products. A licensee
must submit to the FAA updated flight abort and flight safety analysis
products, using methodologies previously approved by the FAA, for each
mission no less than 30 days before flight, unless the Administrator
agrees to a different time frame in accordance with Sec.  404.15 in the
license.
    (1) A licensee is not required to submit the flight abort and
flight safety analysis products if--
    (i) The analysis submitted in the license application satisfies all
the requirements of this section; or
    (ii) The licensee demonstrated during the application process that
the analysis does not need to be updated to account for mission-
specific factors.
    (2) If a licensee is required to submit the flight abort and flight
safety analysis products, the licensee--
    (i) Must account for vehicle- and mission-specific input data;
    (ii) Must account for potential variations in input data that may
affect any analysis product within the final 30 days before flight;
    (iii) Must submit the analysis products using the same format and
organization used in its license application; and
    (iv) May not change an analysis product within the final 30 days
before flight unless the licensee has a process, approved in the
license, for making a change in that period as part of the licensee's
flight safety analysis process.
    (d) Flight safety system test data. Any licensee that is required
by Sec.  450.101(c) to use a flight safety system to protect public
safety must submit to the FAA, or provide the FAA access to, any test
reports, in accordance with approved flight safety system test plans,
no less than 30 days before flight, unless the Administrator agrees to
a different time frame in accordance with Sec.  404.15 in the license.
These reports must include:
    (1) A summary of the system, subsystem, and component-level test
results, including all test failures and corrective actions
implemented;
    (2) A summary of test results demonstrating sufficient margin to
predicted operating environments;
    (3) A comparison matrix of the actual qualification and acceptance
test levels used for each component in each test compared against the
predicted flight levels for each environment, including any test
tolerances allowed for each test; and
    (4) A clear identification of any components qualified by
similarity analysis or a combination of analysis and test.
    (e) Collision avoidance analysis. A licensee must submit to a
Federal entity identified by the FAA and to the FAA the collision
avoidance information in appendix A to part 450 in accordance with
Sec.  450.169(f).
    (f) Launch or reentry schedule. A licensee must file a launch or
reentry schedule that identifies each review, rehearsal, and safety-
critical operation. The schedule must be filed and updated in time to
allow FAA personnel to participate in the reviews, rehearsals, and
safety-critical operations.

Sec.  450.215  Post-flight reporting.

    (a) A licensee must submit to the FAA the information in paragraph
(b) of this section no later than 90 days after a launch or reentry,
unless the Administrator agrees to a different time frame in accordance
with Sec.  404.15 of this chapter.
    (b) A licensee must send the following information as an email
attachment to<EMAIL_ADDRESS>or other method as agreed to by
the Administrator in the license:

    (1) Any anomaly that occurred during countdown or flight that is
material to public health and safety and the safety of property;
    (2) Any corrective action implemented or to be implemented after
the flight due to an anomaly or mishap;
    (3) The number of humans on board the vehicle;
    (4) The actual trajectory flown by the vehicle, if requested by the
FAA; and
    (5) For an unguided suborbital launch vehicle, the actual impact
location of all impacting stages and impacting components, if requested
by the FAA.

Sec.  450.217  Registration of space objects.

    (a) To assist the U.S. Government in implementing Article IV of the
1975 Convention on Registration of Objects Launched into Outer Space,
each licensee must submit to the FAA the information required by
paragraph (b) of this section for all objects placed in space by a
licensed launch, including a launch vehicle and any components, except
any object owned and registered by the U.S. Government.
    (b) For each object that must be registered in accordance with this
section, no later than 30 days following the conduct of a licensed
launch, a licensee must file the following information:
    (1) The international designator of the space object;
    (2) Date and location of launch;
    (3) General function of the space object;
    (4) Final orbital parameters, including:
    (i) Nodal period;
    (ii) Inclination;
    (iii) Apogee;
    (iv) Perigee; and
    (5) Ownership, and country of ownership, of the space object.
    (c) A licensee must notify the FAA when it removes an object that
it has previously placed in space.

Sec.  450.219  Records.

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, a
licensee must maintain for 3 years all records, data, and other
material necessary to verify that a launch or reentry is conducted in
accordance with representations contained in the licensee's
application, the requirements of subparts C and D of this part, and the
terms and conditions contained in the license.
    (b) For an event that meets any of paragraph (1) through (5) or
paragraph (8) of the definition of ``mishap'' in Sec.  401.7 of this
chapter, a licensee must preserve all records related to the event.
Records must be retained until completion of any Federal investigation
and the FAA advises the licensee that the records need not be retained.
The licensee must make all records required to be maintained under the
regulations available to Federal officials for inspection and copying.

Appendix A to Part 450--Collision Analysis Worksheet

    (a) Launch or reentry information. An operator must file the
following information:
    (1) Mission name. A mnemonic given to the launch vehicle/payload
combination identifying the launch mission distinctly from all
others;
    (2) Launch location. Launch site location in latitude and
longitude;
    (3) Launch or reentry window. The launch or reentry window
opening and closing times in Greenwich Mean Time (referred to as
ZULU time) and the Julian dates for each scheduled launch or reentry
attempts including primary and secondary launch or reentry dates;
    (4) Epoch. The epoch time, in Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), of the
expected launch vehicle liftoff time;
    (5) Segment number. A segment is defined as a launch vehicle
stage or payload after the thrusting portion of its flight has
ended. This includes the jettison or deployment of any stage or
payload. For each segment, an operator must determine the orbital
parameters;
    (6) Orbital parameters. An operator must identify the orbital
parameters for all objects achieving orbit including the parameters
for each segment after thrust ends;
    (7) Orbiting objects to evaluate. An operator must identify all
orbiting object descriptions including object name, length, width,
depth, diameter, and mass;
    (8) Time of powered flight and sequence of events. The elapsed
time in hours, minutes, and seconds, from liftoff to passivation or
disposal. The input data must include the time of powered flight for
each stage or jettisoned component measured from liftoff; and
    (9) Point of contact. The person or office within an operator's
organization that collects, analyzes, and distributes collision
avoidance analysis results.
    (b) Collision avoidance analysis results transmission medium. An
operator must identify the transmission medium, such as voice or
email, for receiving results.
    (c) Deliverable schedule/need dates. An operator must identify
the times before flight, referred to as ``L-times,'' for which the
operator requests a collision avoidance analysis. The final
collision avoidance analysis must be used to establish flight commit
criteria for a launch.
    (d) Trajectory files. Individual position and velocity
trajectory files, including:
    (1) The position coordinates in the Earth-Fixed Greenwich (EFG)
coordinates system measured in kilometers and the EFG velocity
components measured in kilometers per second, of each launch vehicle
stage or payload starting below 150 km through screening time frame;
    (2) Radar cross section values for each individual file;
    (3) Position Covariance, if probability of impact analysis
option is desired; and
    (4) Separate trajectory files identified by valid window time
frames, if launch or reentry trajectory changes during launch or
reentry window.
    (e) Screening. An operator must select spherical, ellipsoidal,
or collision probability screening as defined in this paragraph for
determining any conjunction:
    (1) Spherical screening. Spherical screening centers a sphere on
each orbiting object's center-of-mass to determine any conjunction;
    (2) Ellipsoidal screening. Ellipsoidal screening utilizes an
impact exclusion ellipsoid of revolution centered on the orbiting
object's center-of-mass to determine any conjunction. An operator
must provide input in the UVW coordinate system in kilometers. The
operator must provide delta-U measured in the radial-track
direction, delta-V measured in the in-track direction, and delta-W
measured in the cross-track direction; or
    (3) Probability of Collision. Collision probability is
calculated using position and velocity information with covariance
in position.

PART 460--HUMAN SPACE FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS

0
71. The authority citation for part 460 continues to read as follows:

    Authority: 51 U.S.C. 50901-50923.

0
72. Amend Sec.  460.45 by revising paragraph (d) to read as follows:

Sec.  460.45  Operator informing space flight participant of risk.

* * * * *
    (d) An operator must describe the safety record of its vehicle to
each space flight participant as follows:
    (1) For licenses issued under part 450 of this chapter, the
operator's safety record must cover any event that meets any of
paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (8) of the definition of ``mishap'' in
Sec.  401.7 that occurred during and after vehicle verification
performed in accordance with Sec.  460.17, and include:
    (i) The number of vehicle flights;
    (ii) The number of events that meet any of paragraph (1), (4), (5),
or (8) of the definition of ``mishap'' in Sec.  401.7 of this chapter;
and
    (iii) Whether any corrective actions were taken to resolve these
mishaps.
    (2) For licenses issued under part 415, 431, or 435 of this
chapter, the operator's safety record must cover launch and reentry
accidents and human space flight incidents as defined by Sec.  401.5,
that occurred during and after vehicle verification performed in
accordance with Sec.  460.17, and include:
    (i) The number of vehicle flights;
    (ii) The number of accidents and human space flight incidents as
defined by Sec.  401.5; and

    (iii) Whether any corrective actions were taken to resolve these
accidents and human spaceflight incidents.
* * * * *

0
73. Effective March 10, 2026, further amend Sec.  460.45 by revising
paragraph (d) to read as follows:

Sec.  460.45  Operator informing space flight participant of risk.

* * * * *
    (d) An operator must describe the safety record of its vehicle to
each space flight participant. The operator's safety record must cover
any event that meets any of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (8) of the
definition of ``mishap'' in Sec.  401.7 that occurred during and after
vehicle verification performed in accordance with Sec.  460.17, and
include:
    (1) The number of vehicle flights;
    (2) The number of events that meet any of paragraph (1), (4), (5),
or (8) of the definition of ``mishap'' in section Sec.  401.7; and
    (3) Whether any corrective actions were taken to resolve these
mishaps.
* * * * *

    Issued under authority provided by 49 U.S.C. 106(f) and 51
U.S.C. Chapter 509 in Washington, DC, on September 30, 2020.
Steve Dickson,
Administrator.
[FR Doc. 2020-22042 Filed 12-2-20; 4:15 pm]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


[Federal Register Volume 84, Number 77 (Monday, April 22, 2019)]
[Notices]
[Pages 16745-16746]
[FR Doc No: 2019-08039]

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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION

Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request

Upon Written Request, Copies Available From: Securities and Exchange
Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC
20549-2736.

Extension:
    Rule 206(4)-7, SEC File No. 270-523, OMB Control No. 3235-0585.

    Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction
Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.), the Securities and Exchange
Commission (the ``Commission'') has submitted to the Office of
Management and Budget (``OMB'') a request for extension of the
previously approved collection of information discussed below.
    The title for the collection of information is ``Investment
Advisers Act rule 206(4)-7 (17 CFR 275.206(4)-7), Compliance procedures
and practices.'' Rule 206(4)-7 requires each investment adviser
registered with the Commission to (i) adopt and implement internal
compliance policies and procedures, (ii) review those policies and
procedures annually, (iii) designate a chief compliance officer, and
(iv) maintain certain compliance records. Rule 206(4)-7 is designed to
protect investors by fostering better compliance with the securities
laws. The collection of information under rule 206(4)-7 is necessary to
assure that investment advisers maintain comprehensive internal
programs that promote the advisers' compliance with the Investment
Advisers Act of 1940. The information collection in the rule also
assists the Commission's examination staff in assessing the adequacy
advisers' compliance programs. This collection of information is found
at 17 CFR 275.206(4)-7 and is mandatory.
    The Commission's examination staff review the information
documented pursuant to rule 206(4)-7; it will be accorded the same
level of confidentiality accorded to other responses provided to the
Commission in the context of its examination and oversight program. An
agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to
respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently
valid control number.
    The respondents to this information collection are investment
advisers registered with the Commission. Our latest data indicate that
there were 13,249 advisers registered with the Commission as of October
31, 2018. The Commission has estimated that compliance with rule
206(4)-7 imposes an annual burden of approximately 87 hours per
respondent. Based on this figure, the Commission estimates a total
annual burden of 1,152, 663 hours for this collection of information.
    The public may view the background documentation for this
information collection at the following website, www.reginfo.gov.
Comments should be directed to: (i) Desk Officer for the Securities and
Exchange Commission, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs,
Office of Management and Budget, Room 10102, New Executive Office
Building, Washington, DC 20503, or by sending an email to:
[email protected]; and (ii) Charles Riddle, Acting Director/
Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o
Candace Kenner, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 or send an email
to: [email protected]. Comments must be submitted to OMB within 30
days of this notice.

    Dated: April 17, 2019.
Jill M. Peterson,
Assistant Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2019-08039 Filed 4-19-19; 8:45 am]
 BILLING CODE 8011-01-P


[Federal Register Volume 78, Number 173 (Friday, September 6, 2013)]
[Notices]
[Pages 54885-54886]
[FR Doc No: 2013-21666]

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DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY

Federal Energy Regulatory Commission

[Project No. 2277-023]

Union Electric Company (dba Ameren Missouri); Notice of
Availability of Final Environmental Assessment

    In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969
and the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) regulations,
18 CFR part 380 (Order No. 486, 52 FR 47897), the Office of Energy
Projects has reviewed the application for a new license for the Taum
Sauk Pumped Storage Project (FERC Project No. 2277), located on the
East Fork of the Black River in Reynolds County, Missouri, and prepared
a final environmental assessment (EA).
    In the final EA, Commission staff analyzes the potential
environmental effects of licensing the project, and concludes that
issuing a new license for the project, with appropriate environmental
measures, would not constitute a major federal action significantly
affecting the quality of the human environment.
    A copy of the final EA is available for review at the Commission in
the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site
at www.ferc.gov using the ``eLibrary'' link.

Enter the docket number, excluding the last three digits, in the docket
number field to access the document. For assistance, contact FERC
Online Support at<EMAIL_ADDRESS>or toll-free at 1-866-208-
3676, or for TTY,<PHONE_NUMBER>.
    You may also register online at www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp to be notified via email of new filings and issuances
related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC
Online Support.
    For further information, please contact Janet Hutzel by telephone
at<PHONE_NUMBER>, or by email at<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
    Dated: August 29, 2013.
Kimberly D. Bose,
Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2013-21666 Filed 9-5-13; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 6717-01-P