[Federal Register Volume 77, Number 154 (Thursday, August 9, 2012)]
[Notices]
[Pages 47692-47693]
[FR Doc No: 2012-19584]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Office of the Secretary of Transportation

[Docket No. DOT-OST-2012-0124]

Notice of Transportation Services' Transition From Paper to
Electronic Fare Media Comments, Response to Public Comments, and Final
Notification

AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, DOT.

ACTION: Notice.

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SUMMARY: On March 29, 2011, and April 2, 2012, U.S. Department of
Transportation's Office of Transportation Services (TRANServe), located
within the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration,
published for public comment Notices of the adoption of a new program
distribution methodology for transit benefits. To date, TRANServe has
implemented its plan in three of the eight TRANServe Services Areas and
continues to implement electronic fare media across the United States,
ensuring that the implementation in the remaining five TRANServe
Service Areas is consistent with applicable statutes and regulations.
TRANServe's plan is a two-year initiative designed to be responsive to
industry changes and technological advances. Over time, many State and
local transit authorities are transitioning, or have already
transitioned, to electronic fare media, compelling the shift from a
paper based system (vouchers) to an electronic fare media structure.
Now that the Federal Register notification process is final, TRANServe
will continue to engage all appropriate stakeholders through outreach
and communication for assistance and advice.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Ms. Denise P. Wright, Business Office
Manager, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

I. Background

    On March 29, 2011, and April 2, 2012, TRANServe published for
public comment Notices of its intent to adopt a new program
distribution methodology for transit benefits. TRANServe provides
service to over 250,000 transit benefit participants employed by over
100 federal organizations nationwide. Since the program's inception,
TRANServe has distributed the qualified transportation fringe benefit
to participating Federal employees via a paper voucher process. In
addition to a growing number of participants, many State and local
transit authorities are transitioning, or have already transitioned, to
electronic fare media, compelling the shift from a paper based system
(vouchers) to an electronic fare media structure. TRANServe has also
experienced rising program costs related to inventory, travel, and
infrastructure support, requiring that TRANServe adopt a new
distribution method from paper to electronic fare media. As a result,
TRANServe is implementing an efficient and effective electronic fare
media transition to its participating transit benefit agencies,
consistent with statutory requirements in 49 U.S.C. 327, Administrative
Working Capital Fund; 26 U.S.C. 132(f), Qualified Transportation
Fringe; 31 U.S.C. 3302, Custodians of Money; Federal Employees Clean
Air Incentives Act (Pub. L. 103-172); and Executive Order 13150,
Federal Workforce Transportation. To date, for instance, TRANServe has
shifted to electronic fare media in the following three of the eight
TRANServe Service Areas:
    Service Area 1--Washington, DC, Maryland, and Virginia.
    Service Area 2 (Southeast)--Tennessee, North Carolina, South
Carolina, Georgia, Florida, Alabama, and Louisiana.
    Service Area 3 (Upper Midwest)--Minnesota, Wisconsin, Michigan,
Illinois, Indiana, Ohio, West Virginia, Kentucky, Virgin Islands, and
Puerto Rico.
    TRANServe intends to continue the implementation of electronic fare
media across the United States within the five remaining areas,
ensuring that such implementation is consistent with applicable
statutes and regulations.

II. Discussion of Public Comments Received on TRANServe's Adoption of a
New Program Distribution Methodology for Transit Benefits

    This section presents a summary of the significant comments
submitted regarding the Federal Register Notices published on March 29,
2011, and April 2, 2012 on TRANServe's adoption of a new program
distribution methodology for transit benefits and TRANServe's responses
to those comments. TRANServe had received comments from interested
individuals prior to this opportunity to comment. To provide a level
playing field, TRANServe addresses all stakeholders' comments, if
applicable, via these overarching responses.
    Comment: TRANServe should develop a method to allow federal
employees to add funds to their benefit cards, possibly through a
credit or debit card transaction, so the TRANServe benefit card could
be used to pay for monthly passes that cost over $125.
    Response: The U.S. Department of Treasury is the Administrator of
the US Debit Card (USDC) Program, under which TRANServe has established
the TRANServe Debit Card. Currently, the Treasury USDC Program does not
offer a card product that delivers federal payments via a card with the
capability of adding personal funds.
    Comment: Suggest that TRANServe advise transit agencies of any
changes or additions to their Bank Identification Number (BIN).
    Response: TRANServe does not anticipate changes to the BIN number.
But if there are any changes, TRANServe will continue to work with
transit agencies for a smooth transition.
    Comment: Commenters remarked that they would be willing to assist
TRANServe in the adoption of an electronic distribution system through
consultation and outreach.
    Response: This Federal Register Notice comment period has provided
an opportunity for stakeholders to assist and advise TRANServe as it
transitions to electronic fare media for its participating agencies.
However, TRANServe notes that there is no overarching Federal Agency
responsible for Policy regarding the Transit Benefit Program.
    Comment: Define Electronic Fare Media.
    Response: TRANServe intends that the term ``Electronic Fare Media''
means electronic media that are excluded from gross income Section
132(a)(5) and 132(f) of the Internal Revenue Code and may encompass
smartcards, debit or credit cards, or other electronic media that meet
the applicable requirements.''
    Comment: Does TRANServe intend to load smart cards for any transit
agencies other than WMATA? If so, which ones?
    Response: At this time, TRANServe does not plan to load smart cards
for any transit agency other than WMATA. However, TRANServe will take
whatever steps are necessary to ensure that its new program
distribution methodology for transit benefits is consistent with
applicable legal requirements.

    Comment: Commenters inquired whether the TRANServe debit card is
compliant with IRS Revenue Ruling 2006-57, as modified, which requires
the cards to be restricted to sales terminals selling fare media only?
    Response: The TRANServe debit card continues to be compliant with
Internal Revenue Code Section 132(f) and the applicable regulations,
and is consistent with how those requirements are applied in IRS
Revenue Ruling 2006-57 to certain factual situations.
    Comment: Commenters asked about transaction monitoring, the
restriction process developed for monitoring compliance, and how the
TRANServe card would be protected to reduce fraudulent use.
    Response: The restriction process was developed through
comprehensive analysis of IRS Revenue Ruling 2006-57, which provides
guidance on the use of smartcards, debit or credit cards, or other
electronic media under various situations to provide qualified
transportation fringes, as well as analysis of other governing
statutes, regulations, and policies. Consistent with the Office of
Management and Budget Circular A-123, Management's Responsibility for
Internal Control, TRANServe and participating agencies have the
responsibility for monitoring compliance. Additionally, transaction
monitoring takes place through various means, to include but not
limited to, system activity monitoring, data mining, anomaly reporting,
etc. In order to reduce or mitigate fraudulent activity, the TRANServe
debit card is issued with the participant's name, is restricted to use
with transit providers, returns unused funds to the Federal government
at the end of each period, and provides detailed reporting of anomalies
to permit follow-up action and system adjustments.
    Comment: Will nationwide rollout of this card, and corresponding
monthly sweeping, create additional administrative issues at a time
when DOT is seeking to reduce admin costs?
    Response: No. There are different administrative tasks with the
introduction and use of the TRANServe debit card; however, TRANServe
anticipates a decrease in administrative costs and better efficiencies
in the long run.
    Comment: How will TRANServe administer its bicycle benefit program
using ``Electronic Fare Media?
    Response: TRANServe does not administer its bicycle benefit program
using electronic fare media.
    Comment: Please indicate how 49 U.S.C. 327, Administrative Working
Capital Fund; 26 U.S.C. 132(f), Qualified Transportation Fringe; 31
U.S.C. 3302, Custodians of Money; Federal Employees Clean Air
Incentives Act (Pub. L. 103-172); and Executive Order 13150, Federal
Workforce Transportation require DOT to switch to ``Electronic Fare
Media''?
    Response: The statutes and regulations mentioned do not require DOT
to switch to Electronic Fare Media. In order to better serve its
customers, TRANServe is responding to transit authority changes and
technological advances, which are expected to reduce administrative
costs and aid in the monitoring of the appropriate use of transit
benefits.
    Comment: How will employees using vanpools, buses, etc. be able to
access their transit benefits?
    Response: A growing number of State and local transit authorities
are transitioning to electronic methods of payment. As explained above,
the TRANServe Debit Card is now being used to distribute the transit
benefit to federal employees in several geographic service areas.
TRANServe recognizes that some transit providers have not yet
implemented technologies that permit electronic payments. In each
instance, TRANServe will continue to provide a limited paper voucher
process while working with the transit provider towards acceptance of
electronic payments, when appropriate.
    Comment: Commenters asked about the cost to administer the
TRANServe program; how it compares with, or whether it is duplicate of,
similar programs in the private sector; and whether TRANServe has
investigated contracting its transit benefit program to a third party
vendor to reduce its administrative costs and overhead.
    Response: The TRANServe Program is a fee-for service organization,
which operates on a breakeven basis. TRANServe along with other Federal
government agencies operate under specific statutory restrictions and
authorities that only reside with and apply to the Federal government.
Thus, TRANServe does not duplicate private sector services. When it is
cost effective and programmatically feasible, TRANServe contracts out
services that are not inherently governmental. In terms of the
transition to electronic fare media, TRANServe is taking advantage of
technological advances in the industry that are expected to reduce
administrative costs, while assisting in the monitoring of the
appropriate use of transit benefits.

    Issue date August 6, 2012.
Marie Petrosino-Woolverton,
Director, Office of Financial Management & Transit Benefit Programs.
[FR Doc. 2012-19584 Filed 8-8-12; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P


[Federal Register Volume 84, Number 125 (Friday, June 28, 2019)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 30909-30911]
[FR Doc No: 2019-13816]

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DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY

Coast Guard

33 CFR Part 165

[Docket No. USCG-2019-0492]
RIN 1625-AA00

Safety Zone; San Francisco Waterfront Celebration Fireworks
Display; San Francisco Bay, San Francisco, CA

AGENCY: Coast Guard, DHS.

ACTION: Temporary final rule.

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SUMMARY: The Coast Guard is establishing temporary safety zones in the
navigable waters of the San Francisco Bay near Aquatic Park in support
of the San Francisco Waterfront Celebration on July 4, 2019. These
safety zones are necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the
marine environment from the dangers associated with pyrotechnics.
Unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into,
transiting through, or remaining in the safety zones without permission
of the Captain of the Port or a designated representative.

DATES: This rule is effective from 9 a.m. on July 3, 2019 to 10:30 p.m.
on July 4, 2019.

ADDRESSES: To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being
available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov, type USCG-
2019-0492 in the ``SEARCH'' box and click ``SEARCH.'' Click on Open
Docket Folder on the line associated with this rule.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: If you have questions on this rule,
call or email Lieutenant Junior Grade Jennae Cotton, Waterways
Management, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>, email
<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

I. Table of Abbreviations

COTP Captain of the Port San Francisco
CFR Code of Federal Regulations
DHS Department of Homeland Security
Sec.  Section
U.S.C. United States Code

II. Background Information and Regulatory History

    The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice
and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of
the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This
provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and
opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those
procedures are ``impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public
interest.'' Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good
cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM)
with respect to this rule. Since the Coast Guard received notice of
this event on April 24, 2019, notice and comment procedures would be
impracticable in this instance.
    Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause
exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after
publication in the Federal Register. For similar reasons as stated
above, notice and comment procedures would be impractical in this
instance due to the short notice provided for this event.

III. Legal Authority and Need for Rule

    The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority 46 U.S.C.
70034 (previously 33 U.S.C. 1231). The COTP has determined that
potential hazards associated with the San Francisco Waterfront
Celebration Fireworks Display on July 4, 2019, will be a safety concern
for anyone within a 100-foot radius of the fireworks barges during
loading, staging, and transit, and anyone within a 700-foot radius of
the fireworks barges starting 30 minutes before the fireworks display
is scheduled to commence and ending 30 minutes after the conclusion of
the fireworks display. For this reason, safety zones are needed to
protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable
waters around the fireworks barges during the fireworks display.

IV. Discussion of the Rule

    This rule establishes safety zones from 9 a.m. on July 3, 2019
until 10:30 p.m. on July 4, 2019 during the loading, staging, and
transit of the four fireworks barges, until approximately 30 minutes
after completion of the fireworks display. From 9 a.m. on July 3, 2019
to 9 p.m. on July 4, 2019, during the loading, staging, and transit of
the fireworks barges until 30 minutes prior to the start of the
fireworks display, the

safety zones will encompass the navigable waters around and under the
four fireworks barges, from surface to bottom, within a circle formed
by connecting all points 100 feet out from each of the fireworks
barges. Loading the pyrotechnics onto the fireworks barges is scheduled
from 9 a.m. on July 3, 2019 to 7:30 p.m. on July 4, 2019, at Pier 50 in
San Francisco, CA. From 7:30 p.m. to 8:15 p.m. on July 4, 2019, the
fireworks barges will be towed from Pier 50 to the two display
locations, where they will remain until the conclusion of the fireworks
display.
    At 9 p.m. on July 4, 2019, 30 minutes prior to the commencement of
the 30-minute San Francisco Waterfront Celebration Fireworks Display,
the safety zones will increase in size and encompass the navigable
waters around and under the fireworks barges, from surface to bottom,
within the circles formed by connecting all points 700 feet from the
circle centers at approximate positions 37[deg]48'49'' N,
122[deg]24'46'' W (NAD 83) and 37[deg]48'45'' N, 122[deg]25'39'' W (NAD
83). The safety zones will terminate at 10:30 p.m. on July 4, 2019.
    The effect of the safety zones is to restrict navigation in the
vicinity of the fireworks loading, staging, transit, and firing sites.
Except for persons or vessels authorized by the COTP or the COTP's
designated representative, no person or vessel may enter or remain in
the restricted areas. These regulations are needed to keep spectators
and vessels away from the immediate vicinity of the fireworks firing
sites to ensure the safety of participants, spectators, and transiting
vessels.

V. Regulatory Analyses

    We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and
Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses
based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we
discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.

A. Regulatory Planning and Review

    Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the
costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if
regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize
net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control
regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been
designated a ``significant regulatory action,'' under Executive Order
12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of
Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt
from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
    This regulatory action determination is based on the limited
duration and narrowly tailored geographic area of the safety zones.
Although this rule restricts access to the waters encompassed by the
safety zones, the effect of this rule will not be significant because
the local waterway users will be notified via public Notice to Mariners
to ensure the safety zones will result in minimum impact. The entities
most likely to be affected are waterfront facilities, commercial
vessels, and pleasure craft engaged in recreational activities.

B. Impact on Small Entities

    The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as
amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of
regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term ``small
entities'' comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations
that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their
fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than
50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule
will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of
small entities.
    This rule may affect the following entities, some of which may be
small entities: owners and operators of waterfront facilities,
commercial vessels, and pleasure craft engaged in recreational
activities and sightseeing, if these facilities or vessels are in the
vicinity of the safety zones at times when these zones are being
enforced. This rule will not have a significant economic impact on a
substantial number of small entities for the following reasons: (i)
This rule will encompass only a small portion of the waterway for a
limited period of time, and (ii) the maritime public will be advised in
advance of these safety zones via Notice to Mariners.
    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement
Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small
entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your
small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have
questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please
contact the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT
section.
    Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal
employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal
regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory
Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory
Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and
rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to
comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR
(1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small
entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or
action of the Coast Guard.

C. Collection of Information

    This rule will not call for a new collection of information under
the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).

D. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments

    A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132,
Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the
relationship between the national government and the States, or on the
distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of
government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have
determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism
principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order
13132.
    Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive
Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal
Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on
one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal
Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and
responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If
you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes,
please contact the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT
section above.

E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act

    The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538)
requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary
regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may
result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in
the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for
inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in
such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere
in this preamble.

F. Environment

    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security

Directive 023-01 and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series),
which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National
Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have
determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not
individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human
environment. This rule involves safety zones of limited size and
duration. It is categorically excluded from further review under
paragraph L60(a) in Table 3-1 of U.S. Coast Guard Environmental
Planning Implementing Procedures 5090.1. A Record of Environmental
Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket
where indicated under ADDRESSES.

G. Protest Activities

    The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters.
Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the FOR FURTHER
INFORMATION CONTACT section to coordinate protest activities so that
your message can be received without jeopardizing the safety or
security of people, places or vessels.

List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165

    Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.

    For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends
33 CFR part 165 as follows:

PART 165--REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS

0
1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:

    Authority:  46 U.S.C 70034, 70051; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-
6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.

0
2. Add Sec.  165.T11-981 to read as follows:

Sec.  165.T11-981  Safety Zone; San Francisco Waterfront Celebration
Fireworks Display; San Francisco Bay, San Francisco, CA.

    (a) Location. The following areas are safety zones: from 9 a.m. on
July 3, 2019 until 9 p.m. on July 4, 2019 the safety zones will
encompass all navigable waters of the San Francisco Bay, from surface
to bottom, within the circles formed by connecting all points 100 feet
out from the fireworks barges during the loading and staging at Pier 50
in San Francisco, CA as well as during transit to and arrival at the
display locations in San Francisco, CA. Between 9 p.m. on July 4, 2019
and 10:30 p.m. on July 4, 2019, the safety zones will expand to all
navigable waters, from surface to bottom, within the circles formed by
connecting all points 700 feet out from the fireworks barges in
approximate positions 37[deg]48'49'' N, 122[deg]24'46'' W (NAD 83) and
37[deg]48'45'' N, 122[deg]25'39'' W (NAD 83).
    (b) Definitions. As used in this section, ``designated
representative'' means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a
Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast
Guard vessel or a Federal, State, or local officer designated by or
assisting the Captain of the Port San Francisco (COTP) in the
enforcement of the safety zones.
    (c) Regulations. (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in
subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zones described in
paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the
COTP's designated representative.
    (2) The safety zones are closed to all vessel traffic, except as
may be permitted by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
    (3) Vessel operators desiring to enter or operate within the safety
zones must contact the COTP or the COTP's designated representative to
obtain permission to do so. Vessel operators given permission to enter
or operate in the safety zones must comply with all lawful orders or
directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated
representative. Persons and vessels may request permission to enter the
safety zones on VHF-23A or through the 24-hour Command Center at
telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>.
    (d) Enforcement period. The zones described in paragraph (a) of
this section will be enforced from 9 a.m. on July 3, 2019 until 10:30
p.m. on July 4, 2019. The Captain of the Port San Francisco will notify
the maritime community of periods during which these zones will be
enforced via Notice to Mariners in accordance with Sec.  165.7.

    Dated: June 18, 2019.
Marie B. Byrd,
Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, San Francisco.
[FR Doc. 2019-13816 Filed 6-27-19; 8:45 am]
 BILLING CODE 9110-04-P


[Federal Register Volume 76, Number 119 (Tuesday, June 21, 2011)]
[Notices]
[Page 36141]
[FR Doc No: 2011-15312]

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DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY

Federal Emergency Management Agency

[Internal Agency Docket No. FEMA-1982-DR; Docket ID FEMA-2011-0001]

Minnesota; Major Disaster and Related Determinations

AGENCY: Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.

ACTION: Notice.

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SUMMARY: This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major
disaster for the State of Minnesota (FEMA-1982-DR), dated May 10, 2011,
and related determinations.

DATES: Effective Date: May 10, 2011.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Peggy Miller, Office of Response and
Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street, SW.,
Washington, DC 20472,<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Notice is hereby given that, in a letter
dated May 10, 2011, the President issued a major disaster declaration
under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and
Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the ``Stafford
Act''), as follows:

    I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State
of Minnesota resulting from severe storms and flooding beginning on
March 16, 2011, and continuing, is of sufficient severity and
magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert
T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C.
5121 et seq. (the ``Stafford Act''). Therefore, I declare that such
a major disaster exists in the State of Minnesota.
    In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby
authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such
amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and
administrative expenses.
    You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the
designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Direct
Federal assistance is authorized. Consistent with the requirement
that Federal assistance is supplemental, any Federal funds provided
under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance and Hazard Mitigation
will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs.
    Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration
for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the
Stafford Act.

    The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice
that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under
Executive Order 12148, as amended, Paul J. Ricciuti, of FEMA is
appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major
disaster.
    The following areas of the State of Minnesota have been designated
as adversely affected by this major disaster:

Big Stone, Blue Earth, Brown, Carver, Chippewa, Clay, Grant, Lac qui
Parle, Le Sueur, Lyon, McLeod, Nicollet, Redwood, Renville, Scott,
Sibley, Stevens, Traverse, Wilkin, and Yellow Medicine Counties for
Public Assistance. Direct Federal assistance is authorized.

    All counties within the State of Minnesota are eligible to apply
for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.

    The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers
(CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030,
Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis
Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster
Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance
Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and
Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049,
Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance--Disaster Housing
Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially
Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households--Other
Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants--Public Assistance (Presidentially
Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.

    Dated: June 14, 2011.
W. Craig Fugate,
Administrator, Federal Emergency Management Agency.
[FR Doc. 2011-15312 Filed 6-20-11; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 9111-23-P


[Federal Register Volume 85, Number 133 (Friday, July 10, 2020)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 41339-41340]
[FR Doc No: 2020-14858]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Part 71

[Docket No. FAA-2020-0324; Airspace Docket No. 20-ACE-6]
RIN 2120-AA66

Amendment of Class E Airspace; Sedalia, MO

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

ACTION: Final rule.

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SUMMARY: This action amends the Class E airspace extending upward from
700 feet above the surface at Sedalia Regional Airport, Sedalia, MO.
This action is the result of an airspace review due to the
decommissioning of the Sedalia non-directional beacon (NDB). The name
of the airport is also being updated to coincide with the FAA's
aeronautical database.

DATES: Effective 0901 UTC, September 10, 2020. The Director of the
Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under
Title 1 Code of Federal Regulations part 51, subject to the annual
revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.

ADDRESSES: FAA Order 7400.11D, Airspace Designations and Reporting
Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/. For further information, you can
contact the Airspace Policy Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-
8783. The Order is also available for inspection at the National
Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the
availability of FAA Order 7400.11D at NARA, email:
<EMAIL_ADDRESS>or go to https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation
Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101
Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

Authority for This Rulemaking

    The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is
found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106
describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII,
Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's
authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described
in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section,
the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of
airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient
use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority
as it amends the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above
the surface at Sedalia Regional Airport, Sedalia, MO, to support
instrument flight rule operations at this airport.

History

    The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the Federal
Register (85 FR 26901; May 6, 2020) for Docket No. FAA-2020-0324 to
amend the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the
surface at Sedalia Regional Airport, Sedalia, MO. Interested parties
were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting
written comments on the proposal to the FAA. No comments were received.
    Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of
FAA Order 7400.11D, dated August 8, 2019, and effective September 15,
2019, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E
airspace designations listed in this document will be published
subsequently in the Order.

Availability and Summary of Documents for Incorporation by Reference

    This document amends FAA Order 7400.11D, Airspace Designations and
Reporting Points, dated August 8, 2019, and effective September 15,
2019. FAA Order 7400.11D is publicly available as listed in the
ADDRESSES section of this document. FAA Order 7400.11D lists Class A,
B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and
reporting points.

The Rule

    This amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR)
part 71 amends the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet
above the surface to within a 6.6-mile (decreased from a 7.1-mile)
radius of the Sedalia Regional Airport, Sedalia, MO; updates the name
of the Sedalia Regional Airport (previously Sedalia Memorial Airport)
to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database; and removes the
Sedalia NDB and associated extension from the airspace legal
description.
    This action is the result of an airspace review due to the
decommissioning of the Sedalia NDB which provided navigation
information to the instrument procedures at this airport.
    FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is
published yearly and effective on September 15.

Regulatory Notices and Analyses

    The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an
established body of technical regulations for which frequent and
routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is
non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative
comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a ``significant regulatory action''
under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a ``significant rule'' under
DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,
1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation
as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter
that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is
certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant
economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the
criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.

Environmental Review

    The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical
exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance
with FAA Order 1050.1F, ``Environmental Impacts: Policies and
Procedures,'' paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected
to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no
extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an
environmental assessment.

Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71

    Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).

Adoption of the Amendment

    In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation
Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:

PART 71--DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR
TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS

0
1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O.
10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.

Sec.  71.1  [Amended]

0
2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order 7400.11D,
Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 8, 2019, and
effective September 15, 2019, is amended as follows:

Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700
Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.

* * * * *

ACE MO E5 Sedalia, MO [Amended]

Sedalia Regional Airport, MO
    (Lat. 38[deg]42'27'' N, long. 93[deg]10'33'' W)

    That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface
within a 6.6-mile radius of Sedalia Regional Airport.

    Issued in Fort Worth, Texas, on July 6, 2020.
Steven T. Phillips,
Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, ATO Central Service Center.
[FR Doc. 2020-14858 Filed 7-9-20; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


[Federal Register: December 29, 2005 (Volume 70, Number 249)]
[Notices]
[Page 77201-77203]
[DOCID:fr29de05-96]

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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION

[Release No. IC-27195]

Notice of Applications for Deregistration Under Section 8(f) of
the Investment Company Act of 1940

December 21, 2005.
    The following is a notice of applications for deregistration under
section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 for the month of
December, 2005. A copy of each application may be obtained for a fee at
the SEC's Public Reference Branch (tel.<PHONE_NUMBER>). An order
granting each application will be issued unless the SEC orders a
hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing on any application by
writing to the SEC's Secretary at the address below and serving the
relevant applicant with a copy of the request, personally or by mail.
Hearing requests should be received by the SEC by 5:30

p.m. on January 17, 2006, and should be accompanied by proof of service
on the applicant, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a
certificate of service. Hearing requests should state the nature of the
writer's interest, the reason for the request and the issues contested.
Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification
by writing to the Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission,
100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-9303. For Further Information
Contact: Diane L. Titus at<PHONE_NUMBER>, SEC, Division of Investment
Management, Office of Investment Company Regulation, 100 F Street, NE.,
Washington, DC 20549-0504.

Amerindo Funds Inc.

 [File No. 811-7531]

    Summary: Applicant seeks an order declaring that it has ceased to
be an investment company. On October 24, 2005, applicant transferred
its assets to Munder Internet Fund, a series of Munder Series Trust,
based on net asset value. Expenses of $133,000 incurred in connection
with the reorganization were paid by applicant and Munder Capital
Management, applicant's investment adviser.
    Filing Dates: The application was filed on November 23, 2005, and
amended on December 14, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 599 Lexington Ave., New York, NY 10022.

Scudder Floating Rate Fund

[File No. 811-9269]

    Summary: Applicant, a closed-end investment company, seeks an order
declaring that it has ceased to be an investment company. On December
20, 2002, applicant made a liquidating distribution to its
shareholders, based on net asset value. Expenses of $146,339 incurred
in connection with the liquidation were paid by Deutsche Investment
Management Americas, Inc., applicant's investment adviser.
    Filing Date: The application was filed on November 29, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 222 South Riverside Plaza, Chicago, IL 60606.

Scudder International Research Fund, Inc.

[File No. 811-8395]

    Summary: Applicant seeks an order declaring that it has ceased to
be an investment company. On May 17, 2002, applicant made a liquidating
distribution to its shareholders, based on net asset value. Expenses of
$7,055 incurred in connection with the liquidation were pay by Deutsche
Investment Management Americas, Inc., applicant's investment adviser.
    Filing Date: The application was filed on November 29, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 222 South Riverside Plaza, Chicago, IL 60606.

Star Lane Trust

[File No. 811-9795]

    Summary: Applicant, a unit investment trust, seeks an order
declaring that it has ceased to be an investment company. On September
30, 2005, applicant made a liquidating distribution to its
shareholders, based on net asset value. Applicant incurred no expenses
in connection with the liquidation.
    Filing Date: The application was filed on November 18, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 11901 Olive Blvd., St. Louis, MO 63141.

Strong High-Yield Municipal Bond Fund, Inc.

 [File No. 811-7930]

    Summary: Applicant seeks an order declaring that it has ceased to
be an investment company. On December 29, 2004, applicant's Investor
Class shares were redeemed for cash based on net asset value. On
December 31, 2004, applicant's SCM Class shares were redeemed in-kind
based on net asset value. Strong Capital Management, Inc. (``SCM''),
applicant's investment adviser, has agreed to distribute any gains
arising from the subsequent sale of the securities it received in the
in-kind redemption of all shares of the SCM Class to Investor Class
shareholders as of the liquidation date. Expenses of approximately
$926,962 incurred in connection with the liquidation were paid by
Strong Financial Corporation, the parent of SCM. Certain contingent
rights, claims and liabilities of applicant relating to shareholder
class actions and derivative actions involving late trading and market
timing allegations were transferred to a liquidating trust for the
benefit of applicant's former shareholders. Upon resolution of these
claims by the liquidating trust, the trustees will distribute any net
proceeds to former shareholders in a manner consistent with applicable
law and the fiduciary duties of the trustees. In addition, applicant's
former shareholders may be entitled to certain amounts paid pursuant to
regulatory settlements of market-timing and related investigations. An
independent distribution consultant was retained by SCM to oversee the
distribution of these amounts to shareholders.
    Filing Dates: The application was filed on April 21, 2005, and
amended on October 24, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 100 Heritage Reserve, Menomonee Falls, WI
53051.

The Brazilian Equity Fund, Inc.

 [File No. 811-6555]

    Summary: Applicant, a closed-end investment company, seeks an order
declaring that it has ceased to be an investment company. On November
14, 2005, applicant made a final liquidating distribution to its
shareholders, based on net asset value. Applicant had paid $66,000 in
expenses in connection with the liquidation. Applicant has retained
$19,463 in cash to pay certain additional accrued expenses.
    Filing Dates: The application was filed on November 1, 2005, and
amended on November 23, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: c/o Credit Suisse Asset Management, LLC, 466
Lexington Ave., 16th Floor, New York, NY 10017.

BBH Common Settlement Fund II, Inc.

[File No. 811-10421]

    Summary: Applicant seeks an order declaring that it has ceased to
be an investment company. By March 28, 2005, all shareholders of
applicant had voluntarily redeemed their shares, based on net asset
value. Applicant incurred no expenses in connection with the
liquidation.
    Filing Dates: The application was filed on August 19, 2005, and
amended on November 23, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 40 Water St., Boston, MA 02109.

Pictet Funds

[File No. 811-9050]

    Summary: Applicant seeks an order declaring that it has ceased to
be an investment company. On September 15, 2004, applicant transferred
its assets to Forward Global Emerging Markets Fund, a series of Forward
Funds, Inc., based on net asset value. Expenses of $66,348 incurred in
connection with the reorganization were paid by Forward Management,
LLC, investment adviser to the acquiring fund.
    Filing Dates: The application was filed on September 12, 2005, and
amended on November 18, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: c/o PFPC, Inc., 760 Moore Rd., King of
Prussia, PA 19406.

Bankers Life Insurance Company of New York Separate Account 1

 [File No. 811-8725]

    Summary: Applicant seeks an order declaring that it has ceased to
be an investment company. Applicant requests deregistration based on
abandonment of registration. At the time of filing, Applicant had no
shareholders or contractholders.

    Filing Date: The application was filed on November 22, 2005.
    Applicant's Address: 65 Froehlich Farm Blvd., Woodbury, NY 11797.

    For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management,
pursuant to delegated authority.
Jonathan G. Katz,
Secretary.
 [FR Doc. E5-8054 Filed 12-28-05; 8:45 am]

BILLING CODE 8010-01-P


[Federal Register Volume 85, Number 195 (Wednesday, October 7, 2020)]
[Proposed Rules]
[Pages 63238-63240]
[FR Doc No: 2020-22124]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Part 39

[Docket No. FAA-2020-0909; Project Identifier 2019-SW-118-AD]
RIN 2120-AA64

Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).

-----------------------------------------------------------------------

SUMMARY: The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD)
for certain Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and
AS332L1 helicopters. This proposed AD was prompted by a report that the
cabin lateral sliding plug door failed its emergency jettisoning test;
subsequent investigation revealed that the jettison handle cable
interfered with the cable clamps. This proposed AD would require
modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door,
or modifying the design of the jettison system of each cabin lateral
sliding plug door, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety
Agency (EASA) AD, which will be incorporated by reference. The FAA is
proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.

DATES: The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by November
23, 2020.

ADDRESSES: You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR
11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
     Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
     Fax:<PHONE_NUMBER>.
     Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket
Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New
Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
     Hand Delivery: Deliver to Mail address above between 9
a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
    For material incorporated by reference (IBR) in this AD, contact
the EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49
221 8999 000; email<EMAIL_ADDRESS>internet www.easa.europa.eu.
You may find this IBR material on the EASA website at https://ad.easa.europa.eu. You may view this IBR material at the FAA, Office of
the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-
321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this
material at the FAA, call<PHONE_NUMBER>. It is also available in the AD
docket on the internet at https://www.regulations.gov by searching for
and locating Docket No. FAA-2020-0909.

Examining the AD Docket

    You may examine the AD docket on the internet at https://www.regulations.gov by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA-2020-
0909; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m.,
Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains
this NPRM, any comments received, and other information. The street
address for Docket Operations is listed above. Comments will be
available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Kathleen Arrigotti, Aviation Safety
Engineer, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA,
2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone and fax 206-231-
3218; email<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

Comments Invited

    The FAA invites you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting
written comments, data, or views about this proposal. The most helpful
comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the
reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To
ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters
should submit only one copy of the comments. Send your comments to an
address listed under the ADDRESSES section. Include ``Docket No. FAA-
2020-0909; Project Identifier 2019-SW-118-AD'' at the beginning of your
comments.
    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in
the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR
11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, as well
as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA
personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this
proposal, the FAA will consider all comments received by the closing
date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the
comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring
expense or delay. The FAA may change this NPRM because of those
comments.

Confidential Business Information

    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily
and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of
Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public
disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial
or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that
you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to
this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted
comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing
CBI as ``PROPIN.'' The FAA will treat such marked submissions as
confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public
docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to
Kathleen Arrigotti, Aviation Safety Engineer, Large Aircraft Section,
International Validation Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines,
WA 98198; telephone and fax<PHONE_NUMBER>; email
<EMAIL_ADDRESS>Any commentary that the FAA receives which
is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public
docket for this rulemaking.

Discussion

    The EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the
European Union, has issued EASA AD 2019-0064R1, dated December 19, 2019
(``EASA AD 2019-0064R1'') (also referred to as the Mandatory Continuing
Airworthiness Information, or ``the MCAI''), to correct an unsafe
condition for certain Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L,
and AS332L1 helicopters.
    This proposed AD was prompted by a report that the cabin lateral
sliding plug door failed its emergency jettisoning test; subsequent
investigation revealed that the jettison handle cable interfered with
the cable clamps. The FAA is proposing this AD to address this
condition, which could lead to jamming of the door jettisoning
mechanism, preventing the jettisoning of the affected door in an
emergency situation, and possibly obstructing occupant evacuation. See
the MCAI for additional background information.

Related IBR Material Under 1 CFR Part 51

    EASA AD 2019-0064R1 describes, among other things, procedures for
modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door,
or modifying the design of the jettison

system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door.
    This material is reasonably available because the interested
parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by
the means identified in the ADDRESSES section.

FAA's Determination and Requirements of This Proposed AD

    This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another
country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant
to the bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, the FAA
has been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI
referenced above. The FAA is proposing this AD because the FAA
evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe
condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other
products of the same type design.

Proposed AD Requirements

    This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified
in EASA AD 2019-0064R1, described previously, as incorporated by
reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the
regulatory text of this AD and except as discussed under ``Differences
Between this Proposed AD and the MCAI.''

Differences Between This Proposed AD and the MCAI

    EASA AD 2019-0064R1 specifies inspections of the jettisoning
mechanism of the cabin lateral sliding plug doors and corrective
actions. This proposed AD does not include those actions. AD 2019-09-
03, Amendment 39-19637 (84 FR 22693, May 20, 2019) (``AD 2019-09-03'')
already requires those actions. The FAA has determined that this
proposed AD would only require the modification specified in EASA AD
2019-0064R1, which would then terminate the requirements of AD 2019-09-
03.

Explanation of Required Compliance Information

    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD
process, the FAA initially worked with Airbus and EASA to develop a
process to use certain EASA ADs as the primary source of information
for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has
since coordinated with other manufacturers and civil aviation
authorities (CAAs) to use this process. As a result, EASA AD 2019-
0064R1 will be incorporated by reference in the FAA final rule. This
proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2019-
0064R1 in its entirety, through that incorporation, except for any
differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this
proposed AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a
particular section in the EASA AD does not mean that operators need
comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement
refers to ``all required actions and compliance times,'' compliance
with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled
``Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)'' in the EASA AD. Service
information specified in EASA AD 2019-0064R1 that is required for
compliance with EASA AD 2019-0064R1 will be available on the internet
at https://www.regulations.gov by searching for and locating Docket No.
FAA-2020-0909 after the FAA final rule is published.

Costs of Compliance

    The FAA estimates that this proposed AD affects 19 helicopters of
U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with
this proposed AD:

                                      Estimated Costs for Required Actions
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
              Labor cost                      Parts cost            Cost per product      Cost on U.S. operators
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Up to 214 work-hours x $85 per hour =  $ \*\..................  Up to $18,190..........  Up to $345,610.
 Up to $18,190.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
* The FAA has received no definitive data that would enable the agency to provide parts cost estimates for the
  actions specified in this proposed AD.

Authority for This Rulemaking

    Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to
issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the
authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,
describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
    The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in
Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.
Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight
of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for
practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary
for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that
authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to
exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.

Regulatory Findings

    The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism
implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not
have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship
between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution
of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
    For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed
regulation:
    (1) Is not a ``significant regulatory action'' under Executive
Order 12866,
    (2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
    (3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or
negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria
of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.

List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39

    Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by
reference, Safety.

The Proposed Amendment

    Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the
Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:

PART 39--AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES

0
1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:

    Authority:  49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.

Sec.  39.13   [Amended]

0
2. The FAA amends Sec.  39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness
directive (AD):

Airbus Helicopters: Docket No. FAA-2020-0909; Project Identifier
2019-SW-118-AD.

(a) Comments Due Date

    The FAA must receive comments by November 23, 2020.

(b) Affected ADs

    This AD affects AD 2019-09-03, Amendment 39-19637 (84 FR 22693,
May 20, 2019) (``AD 2019-09-03'').

(c) Applicability

    This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1,
AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters, certificated in any category, as
identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2019-
0064R1, dated December 19, 2019 (``EASA AD 2019-0064R1'').

(d) Subject

    Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 5200, Doors.

(e) Reason

    This AD was prompted by a report that the cabin lateral sliding
plug door failed its emergency jettisoning test; subsequent
investigation revealed that the jettison handle cable interfered
with the cable clamps. The FAA is issuing this AD to address this
condition, which could lead to jamming of the door jettisoning
mechanism, preventing the jettisoning of the affected door in an
emergency situation, and possibly obstructing occupant evacuation.

(f) Compliance

    Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified,
unless already done.

(g) Requirements

    Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all
required actions and compliance times specified in, and in
accordance with, paragraph (3) or (4) of EASA AD 2019-0064R1.

(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2019-0064R1

    (1) Where EASA AD 2019-0064R1 refers to April 10, 2019 (the
effective date of EASA AD 2019-0064, dated March 27, 2019), this AD
requires using the effective date of this AD.
    (2) The ``Remarks'' section of EASA AD 2019-0064R1 does not
apply to this AD.
    (3) If the modification specified in paragraph (4) of EASA AD
2019-0064R1 is done, it must be done at the compliance time
specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2019-0064R1.
    (4) Although the service information referenced in EASA AD 2019-
0064R1 specifies to discard or scrap certain parts, this AD does not
include that requirement.
    (5) Where paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2019-0064R1 specifies to do a
modification ``in accordance with the instructions of section 3 of
the modification ASB'' this AD excludes paragraph 3.B.5. of ``the
modification ASB.''
    (6) Where paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2019-0064R1 refers to
``Eurocopter AS 322 SB No. 52.00.28,'' for this AD use ``Eurocopter
AS 332 SB No. 52.00.28.''

(i) Terminating Action for AD 2019-09-03

    Accomplishing the actions required by this AD terminates all
requirements of AD 2019-09-03.

(j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)

    The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the
authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the
procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19,
send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight
Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information
directly to the International Validation Branch, send it to the
attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(2) of this AD.
Information may be emailed to<EMAIL_ADDRESS>For
operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate
or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, notify your principal inspector
or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight
standards district office or certificate holding district office,
before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an
AMOC.

(k) Related Information

    (1) For information about EASA AD 2019-0064R1, contact the EASA,
Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221
8999 000; email<EMAIL_ADDRESS>internet www.easa.europa.eu. You
may find this EASA AD on the EASA website at https://ad.easa.europa.eu. You may view this material at the FAA, Office of
the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room
6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of
this material at the FAA, call<PHONE_NUMBER>. This material may be
found in the AD docket on the internet at https://www.regulations.gov by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA-
2020-0909.
    (2) For more information about this AD, contact Kathleen
Arrigotti, Aviation Safety Engineer, Large Aircraft Section,
International Validation Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des
Moines, WA 98198; telephone and fax<PHONE_NUMBER>; email
<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
    Issued on October 1, 2020.
Lance T. Gant,
Director, Compliance & Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification
Service.
[FR Doc. 2020-22124 Filed 10-6-20; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


[Federal Register: April 29, 2010 (Volume 75, Number 82)]
[Notices]
[Page 22579-22580]
[DOCID:fr29ap10-56]

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DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY

Federal Energy Regulatory Commission

[Project No. 13317-000]

Bishop Paiute Tribe; Notice of Competing Preliminary Permit
Application Accepted for Filing and Soliting Comments and Motions To
Intervene

April 21, 2010.
    On November 3, 2008, the Bishop Paiute Tribe filed an application
for a preliminary permit, pursuant to section 4(f) of the Federal Power
Act (FPA), proposing to study the feasibility of the Bishop Paiute
Hydroelectric Project to be located on a new penstock between the base
of a mine and Morgan Creek in Inyo County, California. The proposed
project would be located within the Inyo National Forest on lands of
the U.S. Forest Service. The sole purpose of a preliminary permit, if
issued, is to grant the permit holder priority to file a license
application during the permit term. A preliminary permit does not
authorize the permit holder to perform any land-disturbing activities
or otherwise enter upon lands or waters owned by others without the
owners' express permission.

    The proposed project would consist of: (1) The existing Pine Creek
Mine site and access tunnel; (2) an existing 12-foot by 12-foot by 30-
foot reinforced concrete plug in the Pine Creek Mine; (3) a proposed
18-inch or smaller steel penstock; (4) a proposed 250-kilowatt
generating unit; (5) a proposed 2.4-kilovolt, 60-foot-long transmission
line; and (6) appurtenant facilities. The project would have an annual
generating capacity of 2.3 gigawatt-hours that would be sold to a local
utility.
    Applicant Contact: Mr. Monty Bengochia, Chairman, Bishop Paiute
Tribe, 50 Tu Su Lane, Bishop, CA 93514;<PHONE_NUMBER>.
    FERC Contact: Emily Carter;<PHONE_NUMBER>.
    Competing Application: This application competes with Project No.
12532-002 filed March 3, 2008. Competing applications were due by close
of business on November 18, 2008.
    Deadline for Filing Comments or Motions to Intervene: 60 days from
the issuance of this notice. Comments and motions to intervene may be
filed electronically via the Internet. See 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii)
and the instructions on the Commission's Web site under the ``e-
Filing'' link. If unable to be filed electronically, documents may be
paper-filed. To paper-file, an original and eight copies should be
mailed to: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory
Commission, 888 First Street, NE., Washington, DC 20426. For more
information on how to submit these types of filings please go to the
Commission's Web site located at http://www.ferc.gov/filings-
comments.asp. More information about this project, including a copy of
the application, can be viewed or printed on the ``eLibrary'' link of
the Commission's Web site at http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/
elibrary.asp. Enter the docket number (P-13317) in the docket number
field to access the document. For assistance, call toll-free 1-866-208-
3372.

Kimberly D. Bose,
Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2010-9934 Filed 4-28-10; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 6717-01-P