[Federal Register: January 4, 2006 (Volume 71, Number 2)]
[Notices]
[Page 333-335]
[DOCID:fr04ja06-47]

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ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY

[EPA-HQ-OAR-2002-0091, FRL-8018-2]

Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection;
Comment Request; Ambient Air Quality Surveillance, EPA ICR Number 0940-
18, OMB Control Number 2060-0084

AGENCY: Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

ACTION: Notice.

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SUMMARY: In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44
U.S.C. 3501 et seq.), this document announces that EPA is planning to
submit a request to renew an existing approved Information Collection
Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). This ICR is
scheduled to expire on June 30, 2006. Before submitting the ICR to OMB
for review and approval, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects
of the proposed information collection as described below.

DATES: Comments must be submitted on or before February 3, 2006.

ADDRESSES: Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID number OAR-
2002-0091, by one of the following methods:
     http://www.regulations.gov: Follow the on-line

instructions for submitting comments.
     E-mail<EMAIL_ADDRESS>     Fax:<PHONE_NUMBER>
     Mail: Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Docket Center
(EPA/DC), Air and Radiation Docket, Mail Code 6102T, 1200 Pennsylvania
Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20460.
    Instructions: Direct your comments to Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-
2002-0091. EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included
in the public docket without change and may be made available online at
http://www.regulations.gov, including any personal information

provided, unless the comment includes information claimed to be
Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose
disclosure is restricted by statute. Do not submit information that you
consider to be CBI or otherwise protected through http://www.regulations.gov or e-mail. The http://www.regulations.gov Web site

is an ``anonymous access'' system, which means EPA will not know your
identity or contact information unless you provide it in the body of
your comment. If you send an e-mail comment directly to EPA without
going through http://www.regulations.gov your e-mail address will be

automatically captured and included as part of the comment that is
placed in the public docket and made available on the Internet. If you
submit an electronic comment, EPA recommends that you include your name
and other contact information in the body of your comment and with any
disk or CD-ROM you submit. If EPA cannot read your comment due to
technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, EPA
may not be able to consider your comment. Electronic files should avoid
the use of special characters, any form of encryption, and be free of
any defects or viruses. For additional information about EPA's public
docket visit the EPA Docket Center homepage at http://www.epa.gov/epahome/dockets.htm
.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: David Lutz, Emissions, Monitoring and
Analysis Division (D243-02), Environmental Protection Agency; telephone
number<PHONE_NUMBER>; fax number:<PHONE_NUMBER>; e-mail address:
<EMAIL_ADDRESS>

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

How Can I Access the Docket and/or Submit Comments?

    EPA has established a public docket for this ICR under Docket ID
No. EPA-OAR-2002-0091, which is available for online viewing at http://www.regulations.gov
, or in person viewing at the Air and Radiation

Docket in the EPA Docket Center (EPA/DC), EPA West, Room B102, 1301
Constitution Ave., NW., Washington, DC. The EPA/DC Public Reading Room
is open from 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding
legal holidays. The telephone number for the Reading Room is 202-566-
1744, and the telephone number for the Air and Radiation Docket is
(202) 566-1742.
    Use http://www.regulations.gov to obtain a copy of the draft

collection of information, submit or view public comments, access the
index listing of the contents of the docket, and to access those
documents in the public docket that are available electronically. Once
in the system, select ``search,'' then key in the docket ID number
identified in this document.

What Information Is EPA Particularly Interested in?

    Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA specifically
solicits comments and information to enable it to:
    (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is
necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency,
including whether the information will have practical utility;
    (ii) Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden
of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of
the methodology and assumptions used;
    (iii) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information
to be collected; and
    (iv) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those
who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated
electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or
other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic
submission of responses. In particular, EPA is requesting comments from
very small businesses (those that employ less than 25) on examples of
specific additional efforts that EPA could make to reduce the paperwork
burden for very small businesses affected by this collection.

What Should I Consider When I Prepare My Comments for EPA?

    You may find the following suggestions helpful for preparing your
comments:
    1. Explain your views as clearly as possible and provide specific
examples.
    2. Describe any assumptions that you used.
    3. Provide copies of any technical information and/or data you used
that support your views.
    4. If you estimate potential burden or costs, explain how you
arrived at the estimate that you provide.

    5. Offer alternative ways to improve the collection activity.
    6. Make sure to submit your comments by the deadline identified
under DATES.
    7. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, be sure to identify the docket
ID number assigned to this action in the subject line on the first page
of your response. You may also provide the name, date, and Federal
Register citation.

What Information Collection Activity or ICR Does This Apply to?

    Affected entities: Entities potentially affected by this action are
those State, local air pollution control agencies, and tribal entities
which collect and report ambient air quality data for the criteria
pollutants to EPA as well as other supporting measurements.
    Title: Ambient Air Quality Surveillance.
    ICR numbers: EPA ICR No. 0941-18, OMB Control No. 2060-0084.
    ICR status: This ICR is currently scheduled to expire on June 30,
2006. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not
required to respond to, a collection of information, unless it displays
a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for EPA's
regulations in title 40 of the CFR, after appearing in the Federal
Register when approved, are listed in 40 CFR part 9, are displayed
either by publication in the Federal Register or by other appropriate
means, such as on the related collection instrument or form, if
applicable. The display of OMB control numbers in certain EPA
regulations is consolidated in 40 CFR part 9.
    Abstract: This Information Collection Request (ICR) includes
ambient air monitoring data and other supporting measurements reporting
and recordkeeping activities associated with the 40 CFR part 58 Ambient
Air Quality Surveillance rule. These data and information are collected
by various State and local air quality management agencies and reported
to the Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards within the Office
of Air and Radiation, U.S. EPA.
    This ICR reflects revisions of the previous ICR update of 2002, and
it covers the period of 2007-2009. The number of monitoring stations,
sampling parameters and frequency of data collection and submittal is
expected to remain stable for 2007-2009.
    The data collected through this information collection consist of
ambient air concentration measurements for the seven air pollutants
with National Ambient Air Quality Standards (i.e., ozone, sulfur
dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, lead, carbon monoxide, PM2.5 and
PM-10), ozone precursors, meteorological variables at a select number
of sites and other supporting measurements. Accompanying the pollutant
concentration data are quality assurance/quality control data and air
monitoring network design information.
    The U.S. EPA and others (e.g., State and local air quality
management agencies, tribal entities, environmental groups, academic
institutions, industrial groups) use the ambient air quality data for
many purposes. Some of the more prominent uses include informing the
public and other interested parties of an area's air quality, judging
an area's (e.g., county, city, neighborhood) air quality in comparison
with the established health or welfare standards (including both
national and local standards), evaluating an air quality management
agency's progress in achieving or maintaining air pollutant levels
below the national and local standards, developing and revising State
Implementation Plans (SIPs) in accordance with 40 CFR part 51,
evaluating air pollutant control strategies, developing or revising
national control policies, providing data for air quality model
development and validation, supporting enforcement actions, documenting
episodes and initiating episode controls, air quality trends
assessment, and air pollution research.
    The State and local agencies and tribal entities with
responsibility for reporting ambient air quality data and information
as requested in this ICR submit these data electronically to the U.S.
EPA's Air Quality System (AQS) database. Quality assurance/quality
control records and monitoring network documentation are also
maintained by each State and local agency, in AQS electronic format
where possible.
    Although the State and local air pollution control agencies and
tribal entities are responsible for the operation of the air monitoring
networks, the EPA funds a portion of the total costs through federal
grants. These grants generally require an appropriate level of
contribution, or ``match,'' from the State/local agencies or tribal
entities. The costs shown in this renewal are the total costs incurred
for the monitoring program regardless of the source of the funding.
This practice of using the total cost is consistent with prior ICR
submittals and renewals.
    This Information Collection is estimated to involve 168 respondents
for a total cost of approximately $173,153,415 (total capital, and
labor and non-labor operation and maintenance) plus a total burden of
2,105,714 hours. The labor costs associated with the hours is
$111,019,923. Included in the total are other costs of non-labor
operations and maintenance of $10,936,320 and equipment and contract
costs of $51,197,172. In addition to the costs at the State and local
air pollution control agencies and tribal entities, there is a burden
to EPA of 135,793 hours and $11,695,453.
    Burden Statement: The annual public reporting and recordkeeping
burden for this collection of information is estimated to average
12,534 hours per respondent. Burden means the total time, effort, or
financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain,
or disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This
includes the time needed to review instructions; develop, acquire,
install, and utilize technology and systems for the purposes of
collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and
maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information;
adjust the existing ways to comply with any previously applicable
instructions and requirements which have subsequently changed; train
personnel to be able to respond to a collection of information; search
data sources; complete and review the collection of information; and
transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
    The ICR provides a detailed explanation of the Agency's estimate,
which is only briefly summarized here:
    Estimated total number of potential respondents: 168.
    Frequency of response: Data submissions are required quarterly, but
may occur more frequently.
    Estimated total annual burden hours: 2,105,714 hours.
    Estimated total annual costs: $173,153,415. This includes an
estimated labor burden cost of $111,019,923 and an estimated cost of
$51,197,172 for equipment and contract costs.

Are There Changes in the Estimates From the Last Approval?

    There is a decrease of 298,892 hours in the total estimated
respondent burden compared with that identified in the ICR currently
approved by OMB. This decrease reflects EPA's consolidation of monitors
into fewer sites, termination of unnecessary monitors, and more
efficient procedures for measuring and reporting data.

What Is the Next Step in the Process for This ICR?

    EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as
appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for
review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. At that time, EPA will
issue another Federal Register notice pursuant to 5 CFR
1320.5(a)(1)(iv) to announce the submission of the ICR to OMB and the
opportunity to submit additional comments to OMB. If you have any
questions about this ICR or the approval process, please contact the
technical person listed under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT.

    Dated: December 20, 2005.
William Lamson,
Acting Director, Emissions Monitoring and Analysis Division.
[FR Doc. E5-8269 Filed 1-3-06; 8:45 am]

BILLING CODE 6560-50-P


[Federal Register Volume 85, Number 156 (Wednesday, August 12, 2020)]
[Notices]
[Pages 48759-48764]
[FR Doc No: 2020-17596]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

Petitions for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft
Prevention Standard

AGENCY: National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA),
Department of Transportation (DOT).

ACTION: Grant of petitions for exemption.

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SUMMARY: This document grants in full four manufacturers' petitions for
exemption for four model lines from the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft
Prevention Standard (Theft Prevention Standard) beginning in model year
(MY) 2021. The manufacturers, vehicle lines, and model years are as
follows: Ford Motor Company (Ford) for its Bronco Sport vehicle line
beginning in MY 2021; Jaguar Land Rover North America LLC (Jaguar Land
Rover) for its Jaguar I-Pace vehicle line beginning in MY 2021;
American Honda Motor Co., Inc. (Honda) for its HR-V vehicle line
beginning in MY 2021; and Volkswagen Group of America, Inc.
(Volkswagen) for its ID.4 vehicle line beginning in MY 2021.

DATES: The exemptions granted by this notice are effective beginning
with the 2021 model year.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Carlita Ballard, Office of
International Policy, Fuel Economy, and Consumer Programs, NHTSA, West
Building, W43-439, NRM-310, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC
20590. Ms. Ballard's phone number is<PHONE_NUMBER>. Her fax number is
(202) 493-2990.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:  Under 49 U.S.C. chapter 331, the Secretary
of Transportation (and the National Highway Traffic Safety
Administration (NHTSA) by delegation) is required to promulgate a theft
prevention standard to provide for the identification of certain motor
vehicles and their major replacement parts to impede motor vehicle
theft. NHTSA promulgated regulations at Part 541 (Theft Prevention
Standard) to require parts-marking for specified passenger motor
vehicles and light trucks. Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106, manufacturers
that are subject to the parts-marking requirements may petition the
Secretary of Transportation for an exemption for a line of passenger
motor vehicles equipped as standard equipment with an anti-theft device
that the Secretary decides is likely to be as effective in reducing and
deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking
requirements. In accordance with this statute, NHTSA promulgated 49 CFR
part 543, which establishes the process through which manufacturers may
seek an exemption from the Theft Prevention Standard.
    49 CFR 543.5 provides general submission requirements for petitions
and states that each manufacturer may petition NHTSA for an exemption
of one vehicle line per model year. Among other requirements,
manufacturers must identify whether the exemption is sought under
section 543.6 or section 543.7. Under section 543.6, a manufacturer may
request an exemption by providing specific information about the anti-
theft device, its capabilities, and the reasons the petitioner believes
the device to be as effective at reducing and deterring theft as
compliance with the parts-marking requirements. Section 543.7 permits a
manufacturer to request an exemption under a more streamlined process
if the vehicle line is equipped with an anti-theft device (an
``immobilizer'') as standard equipment that complies with one of the
standards specified in that section.
    Section 543.8 establishes requirements for processing petitions for
exemption from the Theft Prevention Standard. As stated in section
543.8(a), NHTSA processes any complete exemption petition. If NHTSA
receives an incomplete petition, NHTSA will notify the petitioner of
the deficiencies. Once NHTSA receives a complete petition it will
process it and, in accordance with section 543.8(b), will grant the
petition if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the
standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in
reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the
parts-marking requirements of Part 541.
    Section 543.8(c) requires NHTSA to issue its decision either to
grant or to deny an exemption petition not later than 120 days after
the date on which a complete petition is filed. If NHTSA does not make
a decision within the 120-day period, the petition shall be deemed to
be approved and the manufacturer shall be exempt from the standard for
the line covered by the

petition for the subsequent model year.\1\ Exemptions granted under
Part 543 apply only to the vehicle line or lines that are subject to
the grant and are equipped with the antitheft device on which the
line's exemption was based and is effective for the model year
beginning after the model year in which NHTSA issues the notice of
exemption, unless the notice of exemption specifies a later year.
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    \1\ 49 U.S.C. 33106(d).
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    Sections 543.8(f) and (g) apply to how NHTSA's decisions on
petitions are to be made known. Under section 543.8(f), if the petition
is sought under section 543.6, NHTSA publishes a notice of its decision
to grant or deny the exemption petition in the Federal Register and
notifies the petitioner in writing. Under section 543.8(g), if the
petition is sought under section 543.7, NHTSA notifies the petitioner
in writing of the agency's decision to grant or deny the exemption
petition.
    This grant of petitions for exemption considers the following
manufacturers' petitions for the following model years: Ford Motor
Company (Ford) for its Bronco Sport vehicle line beginning in MY 2021;
Jaguar Land Rover North America LLC (Jaguar Land Rover) for its Jaguar
I-Pace vehicle line beginning in MY 2021; American Honda Motor Co.,
Inc. (Honda) for its HR-V vehicle line beginning in MY 2021; and
Volkswagen Group of America, Inc. (Volkswagen) for its ID.4 vehicle
line beginning in MY 2021.
    As explained below, the petitions for all four manufacturers'
vehicle lines are granted under 49 U.S.C. 33106, which states that if
the Secretary of Transportation (NHTSA, by delegation) does not make a
decision about a petition within 120 days of the petition submission,
the petition shall be deemed to be approved and the manufacturer shall
be exempt from the standard for the line covered by the petition for
the subsequent model year. Separately, based on the information
provided in each manufacturer's petition, NHTSA has determined that the
antitheft device to be placed on each line as standard equipment is
likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft
as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft
Prevention Standard.

I. Petition Approval Under 49 U.S.C. 33106(d)

    As outlined above, if NHTSA does not make a decision on a complete
exemption petition within the 120-day period after the date that the
petition was filed,\2\ the petition shall be deemed to be approved and
the manufacturer shall be exempt from the standard for the line covered
by the petition for the subsequent model year.\3\
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    \2\ See 51 FR 706; 52 FR 33821. Since the interim final rule
implementing the Theft Prevention Standard, NHTSA has interpreted
the filing date as meaning the date on which NHTSA receives a
manufacturer's complete petition.
    \3\ 49 U.S.C. 33106(d).
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    Each manufacturer covered in this notice submitted a petition for
exemption to NHTSA more than 120 days prior to this decision. Although
each petition is accordingly approved pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106(d),
for continuity for manufacturers, because MY 2021 production is likely
to begin 8 months prior to the start of this notice,\4\ NHTSA evaluated
the specific information provided by each manufacturer in accordance
with the requirements in 49 CFR 543.6, Petition: Specific content
requirements. Based on this information, NHTSA separately determined
that the antitheft device to be placed on each line as standard
equipment is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor
vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the
Theft Prevention Standard.
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    \4\ 49 U.S.C. 33106(c).
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II. Specific Petition Content Requirements Under 49 CFR 543.6

    Pursuant to 49 CFR part 543, Exemption from Vehicle Theft
Prevention, the four manufacturers described below petitioned for their
specified vehicle lines an exemption from the parts-marking
requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard, beginning in MY 2021.
Ford, Jaguar Land Rover, Honda, and Volkswagen petitioned under 49 CFR
543.6, Petition: Specific content requirements, which, as described
above, requires manufacturers to provide specific information about the
anti-theft device installed as standard equipment on all vehicles in
the line for which an exemption is sought, the anti-theft device's
capabilities, and the reasons the petitioner believes the device to be
as effective at reducing and deterring theft as compliance with the
parts-marking requirements.
    More specifically, section 543.6(a)(1) requires petitions to
include a statement that an antitheft device will be installed as
standard equipment on all vehicles in the line for which the exemption
is sought. Under section 543.6(a)(2), each petition must list each
component in the antitheft system, and a diagram showing the location
of each of those components within the vehicle. As required by section
543.6(a)(3), each petition must include an explanation of the means and
process by which the device is activated and functions, including any
aspect of the device designed to: (1) Facilitate or encourage its
activation by motorists; (2) attract attention to the efforts of an
unauthorized person to enter or move a vehicle by means other than a
key; (3) prevent defeating or circumventing the device by an
unauthorized person attempting to enter a vehicle by means other than a
key; (4) prevent the operation of a vehicle which an unauthorized
person has entered using means other than a key; and (5) ensure the
reliability and durability of the device.\5\
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    \5\ 49 CFR 543.6(a)(3).
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    In addition to providing information about the antitheft device and
its functionality, petitioners must also submit the reasons for the
petitioner's belief that the antitheft device will be effective in
reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft, including any theft data
and other data that are available to the petitioner and form a basis
for that belief,\6\ and the reasons for the petitioner's belief that
the agency should determine that the antitheft device is likely to be
as effective as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part
541 in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft, including any
statistical data that are available to the petitioner and form the
basis for the petitioner's belief that a line of passenger motor
vehicles equipped with the antitheft device is likely to have a theft
rate equal to or less than that of passenger motor vehicles of the
same, or a similar, line which have parts marked in compliance with
Part 541.\7\
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    \6\ 49 CFR 543.6(a)(4).
    \7\ 49 CFR 543.6(a)(5).
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    The following sections describe each manufacturer's petition
information provided pursuant to 49 CFR part 543, Exemption from
Vehicle Theft Prevention. To the extent that specific information in a
manufacturer's petition is subject to a properly filed confidentiality
request, that information was not disclosed as part of this notice. See
49 CFR 512.20(a).

a. Ford

    In a petition dated December 12, 2019, Ford requested an exemption
from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard
for its Bronco Sport vehicle line beginning with MY 2021. Pursuant to
section 543.6(a)(1), Ford stated that the antitheft device described in
its petition--Intelligent

Access with Push Button Start (IAwPB)--will be standard equipment on
its Bronco Sport vehicle line produced for the U.S. beginning with MY
2021 and beyond. Ford also stated that on its signature trim level
models it will offer phone as key (Paak) feature via the LincolnWay app
that can be used when paired with a smart phone instead of using a key
fob to lock/unlock or remotely start/shutdown the vehicle.
    In accordance with section 543.6(a)(2), Ford provided a detailed
description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the
components of the antitheft device for its Bronco Sport vehicle line.
Under section 543.6(a)(3), Ford described the IAwPB system as a
passive, electronic engine immobilizer device that uses encrypted
transponder technology. Key components of the IAwPB device will include
an Intelligent Access electronic Push-Button Start key fob, keyless
ignition system, radio transceiver module, body control module (BCM),
powertrain control module (PCM), anti-lock braking system module (ABS)
and an embedded secure modem (for Paak feature). Ford further stated
that its Bronco Sport vehicle line will also be offered with a
perimeter alarm system as standard equipment which will activate a
visible and audible alarm whenever unauthorized access is attempted.
Some additional features of the antitheft device include: Encrypted
communication between the transponder, BCM control function and the
PCM; ``virtually impossible'' key duplication; and shared security data
between the body control module/remote function actuator and the
powertrain control module.
    Ford also provided information on the reliability and durability of
its proposed device. To ensure reliability and durability of its
device, Ford stated that it conducted tests on the antitheft device
which complied with its own specific standards. Additionally, Ford
stated that its antitheft device has no moving parts (i.e., BCM, PCM,
and electrical components) to perform system functions, which eliminate
the possibility of physical damage or deterioration from normal use;
and mechanically overriding the device to start the vehicle is also
impossible. In further addressing the reliability and durability of its
device, Ford stated that its Bronco Sport vehicle line will also be
equipped with several other standard antitheft features common to Ford
vehicles, (i.e., hood release located inside the vehicle, counterfeit
resistant VIN labels, secondary VINs, and cabin accessibility only with
the use of a valid key fob).
    Ford also stated that its system is automatically activated when
the ``StartStop'' button is pressed, shutting off the engine. Ford
stated that the device is deactivated when a start sequence is
completed and engine start is successful. Ford further stated that the
vehicle engine can only be started when the key is present in the
vehicle and the ``StartStop'' button inside the vehicle is pressed.
Ford stated that when the ``StartStop'' button is pressed, the
transceiver module will read a key code and transmit an encrypted
message to the control module to determine key validity and engine
start by sending a separate encrypted message to the BCM and the PCM.
The powertrain will function only if the key code matches the unique
identification key code previously programmed into the BCM. Ford stated
that the two modules must be matched together in order for the vehicle
to start. If the codes do not match, the powertrain engine starter,
spark, and fuel will be disabled. Ford further stated that any attempt
to operate the vehicle without transmission of the correct code to the
electronic control (i.e., short circuiting the ``StartStop'' button)
module will be ineffective.
    Ford stated that its anti-theft system was introduced on all MY
1996 Ford Mustang GT and Cobra models as well as other selected models.
Ford also stated that on its 1997 models, the installation of its
antitheft device was extended to the entire Ford Mustang vehicle line
as standard equipment and that according to the National Insurance
Crime Bureau (NICB) theft statistics, MY 1997 Mustangs installed with
the antitheft device showed a 70% reduction in theft rate compared to
its MY 1995 Mustangs without an antitheft device.
    Ford further stated that the proposed antitheft device is very
similar to the system that was offered on its MY 2020 Lincoln Corsair
vehicle line. The Lincoln Corsair vehicle line was granted a parts-
marking exemption by NHTSA (84 FR 10890, March 22, 2019) beginning with
its MY 2020 vehicles.

b. Jaguar Land Rover

    In a petition dated November 26, 2019, Jaguar Land Rover requested
an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft
Prevention Standard for its Jaguar I-Pace vehicle line beginning with
MY 2021. Pursuant to section 543.6(a)(1), Jaguar Land Rover stated that
the antitheft device described in its petition--a passive, transponder-
based, electronic engine immobilizer device--will be standard equipment
on the Jaguar I-Pace model for MY 2021.
    In accordance with section 543.6(a)(2), Jaguar Land Rover provided
a detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and
location of the components of the antitheft device for the Jaguar I-
Pace vehicle line. Under section 543.6(a)(3), Jaguar Land Rover
described that key components of its antitheft device will include a
Smart Key, powertrain control module (PCM), instrument cluster, body
control module (BCM), remote frequency receiver (RFR), Immobilizer
Antenna Unit (IAU), Remote Frequency Actuator (RFA), Security Horn and
Vehicle Horn, Door Zone Modules (Passenger and Driver) (DMZs) and a
Security Warning LED. Jaguar Land Rover stated that its antitheft
device will also include a vehicle security system that includes an
audible and visual perimeter alarm system as standard equipment on the
entire vehicle line. The horn will sound and the vehicle's exterior
lights will flash if unauthorized entry is attempted by opening the
hood, doors, or luggage compartment. Jaguar Land Rover further stated
that its perimeter alarm system can be armed with its Smart Key or
programmed to be passively armed.
    Jaguar Land Rover provided information on the reliability and
durability of its proposed device as required by section
543.6(a)(3)(v). To ensure reliability and durability of the device,
Jaguar Land Rover conducted tests based on its own specified standards.
Jaguar Land Rover provided a detailed list of the tests conducted
(i.e., temperature and humidity cycling, high and low temperature
cycling, mechanical shock, random vibration, thermal stress/shock
tests, material resistance tests, dry heat, dust and fluid ingress
tests). Jaguar Land Rover stated that it believes that its device is
reliable and durable because it complied with specified requirements
for each test. Additionally, Jaguar Land Rover stated that its key
recognition sequence includes over a billion code combinations with
encrypted data that are secure against duplication. Jaguar Land Rover
further stated that the coded data transfer between modules use a
unique secure identifier and public algorithm. Jaguar Land Rover also
stated that since its Jaguar I-Pace vehicle line will utilize a push
button vehicle ignition, it does not have a conventional mechanical key
barrel, and therefore, a thief will have no means of forcibly bypassing
the key-locking system.
    Jaguar Land Rover stated that its immobilizer device is
automatically activated when the Smart Key is removed from the vehicle.
Jaguar Land Rover also stated that its Smart Key is programmed and
synchronized to each

vehicle through an identification key code and a secret, randomly-
generated code unique to each vehicle.
    Jaguar Land Rover stated that there are three methods of antitheft
device deactivation and engine starting. Method one consists of
automatic detection of the Smart Key via a remote frequency challenge
response sequence. Specifically, when the driver approaches the vehicle
and pulls the driver's door handle following authentication of the
correct Smart Key, the doors will unlock. When the ignition start
button is pressed, the device searches to find and authenticate the
Smart Key within the vehicle interior. If successful, this information
is passed to the BCM via the Remote Function Actuator by coded data
transfer. The BCM will pass the ``valid key'' status to the instrument
cluster, via a coded data transfer and then send the ``key valid''
message code to the PCM initiating a coded data transfer and engine
authorization to start. Method two consists of unlocking the vehicle
with the Smart Key unlock button. As the driver approaches the vehicle,
the Smart Key unlock button is pressed and the doors will unlock. Once
the driver presses the ignition start button, the operation process is
the same as method one. Method three involves using the emergency key
blade. If the Smart Key has a discharged battery or is damaged, there
is an emergency key blade that can be removed from the Smart Key and
used to unlock the doors. When the ignition start button is pressed,
the device searches to find and authenticate the Smart Key within the
vehicle interior. If successful, the Smart Key needs to be docked. Once
the Smart Key is docked/placed in the correct position, and the
ignition start button is pressed again, the BCM and Smart key enter a
coded data exchange via the Immobilizer Antenna Unit. The BCM then
passes the valid key status to the instrument cluster, via the
Immobilizer Antenna Unit and sends the key valid message to the PCM,
which initiates a coded data transfer. If successful, engine starting
is authorized.
    Jaguar Land Rover stated that its immobilizer system on the Jaguar
I-Pace is substantially similar to the antitheft devices using similar
technology installed on the Jaguar F-Pace, Jaguar XJ, Jaguar F-Type,
Jaguar XF, Jaguar XE, Land Rover Discovery Sport and the Land Rover
Range Rover Evoque.

c. Honda

    In a petition dated December 13, 2019, Honda requested an exemption
from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard
for its HR-V vehicle line beginning with MY 2021. Pursuant to section
543.6(a)(1), Honda stated that the antitheft device described in its
petition--a transponder-based ignition immobilizer system--will be
installed as standard equipment on HR-V vehicles starting with MY 2021.
    In accordance with section 543.6(a)(2), Honda provided a detailed
description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the
components of the antitheft device for the HR-V vehicle line. Honda
stated that its vehicle line will offer a front-wheel drive and an all-
wheel drive variation. Honda further stated that its MY 2021 HR-V
vehicle line will be installed with a transponder-based, engine
immobilizer antitheft device as standard equipment. More specifically,
Honda stated that the HR-V vehicle line will offer two types of
ignition systems, a ``smart entry push button start'' ignition system
(``smart entry'') and a keyed ignition system with a key fob. Key
components of the antitheft device will include a passive immobilizer,
``smart entry'' remote, powertrain control module (PCM) and an
Immobilizer Entry System (IMOES). Honda further stated that its vehicle
line will be installed with a vehicle security alarm system as standard
equipment which will activate a visible and audible alarm whenever
unauthorized access is attempted.
    Honda provided information on the reliability and durability of its
proposed device as required by section 543.6(a)(3)(v). To ensure
reliability and durability of the device, Honda conducted tests based
on its own specified standards. Honda provided a detailed list of the
tests it used to validate the integrity, durability and reliability of
its device and stated that the company believes that it follows a
rigorous development process to ensure that its antitheft device will
be reliable and robust for the life of the vehicle. Honda stated that
its device does not require the presence of a ``smart entry'' remote
battery to function nor does it have any moving parts (i.e., the PCM,
IMOES, ignition key, ``smart entry'' remote and the corresponding
electrical components found within its own housing units), which it
believes reduces the chance for deterioration and wear from normal use.
Honda also stated that additional levels of reliability, durability and
security will be accomplished because it will incorporate counterfeit
resistant vehicle identification number (VIN) plates, secondary VINs, a
hood release located inside the vehicle, and its smart entry remote
will utilize rolling codes for the lock and unlock functions of its
vehicles.
    Honda further stated that its immobilizer device is always active
without requiring any action from the vehicle operator as long as the
matching smart entry remote is outside of the operating range and the
engine is turned off. Deactivation occurs when a valid ``smart entry''
remote with matching codes is placed within operating range and the
engine start/stop button is pushed to start the vehicle. Honda further
states that if a ``smart entry'' remote without a matching code is
placed inside the operating range and the engine start/stop button is
pushed, the PCM will prevent fueling and starting of the engine.
Additionally, an ignition immobilizer telltale indicator will begin
flashing on the meter panel providing the status of the immobilizer
device.
    Honda stated that the audible and visible vehicle security alarm
system installed on its HR-V vehicles will monitor any attempts of
unauthorized entry and attract attention to an unauthorized person
attempting to enter its vehicles without the use of a ``smart entry''
remote or its built-in mechanical door key. Specifically, Honda stated
that whenever an attempt is made to open one of its vehicle doors, hood
or trunk without using the ``smart entry'' remote or turning a key in
the key cylinder to disarm the vehicle, the vehicle's horn will sound
and its lights will flash. Honda stated that its vehicle security
system is activated when all of the doors are locked and the hood and
trunk are closed and locked. Honda further stated that its vehicle
security system is deactivated by using the key fob buttons to unlock
the vehicle doors or having the ``smart entry'' remote within operating
range when the operator grabs either of the vehicle's front door
handles.
    Honda believes that installation of the antitheft immobilizer
device as standard equipment reduces the vehicle theft rate by making
conventional methods of theft obsolete, i.e., punching out the steering
column or hot-wiring the ignition. Additionally, Honda stated that the
immobilizer device proposed for the 2021 HR-V is similar to the design
offered on its Honda Civic, Honda Accord, Honda CR-V, Honda Pilot and
Acura MDX, Honda Passport, and the Acura TLX vehicles which have been
granted an exemption by the agency.

d. Volkswagen

    In a petition dated December 20, 2019, Volkswagen requested an
exemption from the parts-marking

requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard for its ID.4 beginning
with MY 2021. Pursuant to section 543.6(a)(1), Volkswagen stated that
the antitheft device described in its petition will be installed as
standard equipment on the ID.4 vehicles starting with MY 2021.
    In accordance with section 543.6(a)(2), Volkswagen provided a
detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and location
of the components of the antitheft device for its ID.4 vehicle line.\8\
Volkswagen stated that its MY 2021 ID.4 line will be installed with its
fifth generation transponder-based electronic engine immobilizer
antitheft device as standard equipment on the entire vehicle line. Key
components of the antitheft device will include an immobilizer, power
control unit (LSG1) in case of 4Motion all-wheel-drive system (LSG1 and
LSG2), adapted ignition key (key fob) and an in-car application server
1 (ICAS1) with integrated gateway.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \8\ Volkswagen also stated that it will offer an audible and
visible alarm as optional equipment on its ID.4 line. Per 49 U.S.C.
33106(b), manufacturers may petition NHTSA for an exemption ``for a
line of passenger motor vehicles equipped as standard equipment with
an anti-theft device that [NHTSA] decides is likely to be as
effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as
compliance with'' the Theft Prevention Standard (emphasis added).
Per 49 U.S.C. 33106(a)(2), ``standard equipment'' means equipment
already installed in a motor vehicle when it is delivered from the
manufacturer and not an accessory or other item that the first
purchaser customarily has the option to have installed. Therefore,
for purposes of Volkswagen's petition, NHTSA is only considering the
device equipped on the vehicle as standard equipment.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Volkswagen provided information on the reliability and durability
of its proposed device as required by section 543.6(a)(3)(v). To ensure
reliability and durability of the device, Volkswagen stated that the
antitheft device has been tested for compliance with its corporate
requirements, including those for electrical and electronic assemblies
in motor vehicles related to performance requirements including
electrical system temperature stability, mechanical integrity,
electrical performance, electromagnetic compatibility (EMC),
environmental compatibility and service life.
    Volkswagen stated that its immobilizer device is aimed to actively
incorporate the power control unit into the evaluation and monitoring
process. Volkswagen also stated that activation of its immobilizer
device occurs automatically after the engine is switched off.
Deactivation of the immobilizer device occurs when the ignition is
turned on or the key fob is recognized by the immobilizer control unit.
Specifically, when turning on the ignition on/off switch, the key
transponder sends a fixed code to the immobilizer control unit. If this
is identified as the correct code, a variable code is generated in the
immobilizer control unit and sent to the transponder. Volkswagen stated
that a secret arithmetic process is then started according to a set of
specific equations and that a new variable code is generated every time
the immobilizer goes through the secret computing process. The results
of the computing process are evaluated in the control unit and if
verified, the vehicle key is acknowledged as correct. The engine
control unit then sends a variable code to the immobilizer control unit
for mutual identification. If all the data matches, the vehicle can be
started.
    In support of its belief that its antitheft device will be as or
more effective in reducing and deterring vehicle theft than the parts-
marking requirement, Volkswagen referenced the effectiveness of
immobilizer devices installed on other vehicles for which NHTSA has
granted exemptions. Specifically, Volkswagen referenced information
from the Highway Loss Data Institute which showed that BMW vehicles
experienced theft loss reductions resulting in a 73% decrease in
relative claim frequency and a 78% lower average loss payment per claim
for vehicles equipped with an immobilizer. Volkswagen also stated that
the National Crime Information Center's (NCIC) theft data showed that
there was a 70% reduction in theft experienced when comparing the MY
1987 Ford Mustang vehicle thefts (with immobilizers) to MY 1995 Ford
Mustang vehicle thefts (without immobilizers).

III. Decision To Grant the Petitions

    As discussed above, the petitions for all four manufacturers'
vehicle lines are considered approved under 49 U.S.C. 33106.
Separately, NHTSA believes, based on the supporting evidence submitted
by each manufacturer, that the antitheft device described for each
vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring
motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements
of the Theft Prevention Standard.
    Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR 543.8(b), the agency grants
a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of Part
541, either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon
substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely
to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as
compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part 541. The agency
finds that each manufacturer has provided adequate reasons for its
belief that the antitheft device for each vehicle line is likely to be
as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as
compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention
Standard. This conclusion is based on the information each manufacturer
provided about its antitheft device.
    As discussed in the notice, Petitions for Exemption From the
Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard in the Federal Register
of Monday, May 11, 2020,\9\ NHTSA would like to reiterate that for
manufacturers providing data to support their belief that a line of
passenger motor vehicles equipped with the antitheft device is likely
to have a theft rate equal to or less than that of the same, or
similar, line which have parts marked in compliance with part 541, the
agency is looking for the manufacturer to provide data comparing the
subject vehicle line to that of a same, or similar line, pursuant to
section 543.6(a)(5).\10\
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    \9\ 85 FR 27798 (May 11, 2020).
    \10\ This is because, to make a valid comparison, NHTSA must
carefully choose two sets of vehicles that are as nearly similar as
possible so that the agency can be reasonably certain that any
differences or similarities in the theft rates of the two sets of
vehicles can be attributed to the presence of an anti-theft device
or parts marking and not to extraneous, confounding variables.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    The agency concludes that for Ford, Jaguar Land Rover, Honda and
Volkswagen, each described device will provide the five types of
performance features listed in section 543.6(a)(3): Promoting
activation; attracting attention to the efforts of unauthorized persons
to enter or operate a vehicle by means other than a key; preventing
defeat or circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons;
preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and
ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
    The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, Appendix A-1, identifies
those lines that are exempted from the Theft Prevention Standard for a
given model year. 49 CFR 543.8(f) contains publication requirements
incident to the disposition of all Part 543 petitions. Advanced
listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the
beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general
description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law
enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts-
marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard.
    If any manufacturer listed in this notice decides not to use the
exemption

for its requested vehicle line, the manufacturer must formally notify
the agency. If such a decision is made, the line must be fully marked
as required by 49 CFR 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts
and replacement parts).
    NHTSA notes that if any manufacturer listed in this notice wishes
in the future to modify the device on which this exemption is based,
the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption.
Section 543.8(d) states that a Part 543 exemption applies only to
vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped
with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption is based.
Further, section 543.10(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions
``to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device
similar to but differing from the one specified in the exemption.''
    The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that
section 543.10(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and
itself. The agency did not intend in drafting Part 543 to require the
submission of a modification petition for every change to the
components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many
such changes could be de minimis. Therefore, NHTSA suggests that if any
manufacturer listed in this notice contemplates making any changes, the
effects of which might be characterized as de minimis, it should
consult the agency before preparing and submitting a petition to
modify.
    For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby grants in full the
following petitions for exemption for the following manufacturers'
vehicle lines for the following model years: Ford Motor Company (Ford)
for its Bronco Sport vehicle line beginning in MY 2021; Jaguar Land
Rover North America LLC (Jaguar Land Rover) for its Jaguar I-Pace
vehicle line beginning in MY 2021; American Honda Motor Co., Inc.
(Honda) for its HR-V beginning in MY 2021; and Volkswagen Group of
America, Inc. (Volkswagen) for its ID.4 beginning in MY 2021.

    Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR
1.95 and 501.8.
Raymond R. Posten,
Associate Administrator for Rulemaking.
[FR Doc. 2020-17596 Filed 8-11-20; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-59-P


[Federal Register Volume 87, Number 138 (Wednesday, July 20, 2022)]
[Notices]
[Pages 43335-43338]
[FR Doc No: 2022-15446]

=======================================================================
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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION

[Release No. 34-95281; File No. SR-FINRA-2022-018]

Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory
Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a
Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Expiration Date of the Temporary
Amendments Set Forth in SR-FINRA-2020-015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027

July 14, 2022.
    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
(``Act'') \1\ and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,\2\ notice is hereby given that
on July 8, 2022, the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.
(``FINRA'') filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (``SEC''
or ``Commission'') the proposed rule change as described in Items I and
II below, which Items have been prepared by FINRA. FINRA has designated
the proposed rule change as constituting a ``non-controversial'' rule
change under paragraph (f)(6) of Rule 19b-4 under the Act,\3\ which
renders the proposal effective upon receipt of this filing by the
Commission. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit
comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \1\ 15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
    \2\ 17 CFR 240.19b-4.
    \3\ 17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance
of the Proposed Rule Change

    FINRA is proposing to extend the expiration date of the temporary
amendments set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027 from
July 31, 2022 to October 31, 2022.\4\ The proposed rule change would
not make any changes to the text of FINRA rules.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \4\ If FINRA seeks to provide additional temporary relief from
the rule requirements identified in this proposed rule change beyond
October 31, 2022, FINRA will submit a separate rule filing to
further extend the temporary extension of time. The amended FINRA
rules will revert to their original form at the conclusion of the
temporary relief period and any extension thereof.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's
website at http://www.finra.org, at the principal office of FINRA and
at the Commission's Public Reference Room.

II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and
Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change

    In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements
concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and
discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The
text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in
Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A,
B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.

A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and
Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change

1. Purpose
    In response to the COVID-19 global health crisis and the
corresponding need to restrict in-person activities, FINRA filed
proposed rule changes, SR-FINRA-2020-015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027, which
respectively provide temporary relief from some timing, method of
service and other procedural requirements in FINRA rules and allow
FINRA's Office of Hearing Officers (``OHO'') and the National
Adjudicatory Council (``NAC'') to conduct hearings, on a temporary
basis, by video conference, if warranted by the current COVID-19-
related public health risks posed by an in-person hearing. In March
2022, FINRA filed a proposed rule change, SR-FINRA-2022-004, to extend
the expiration date of the temporary amendments in both SR-FINRA-2020-
015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027 from March 31, 2022, to July 31, 2022.\5\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \5\ See Securities Exchange Act Release No. 94430 (March 16,
2022), 87 FR 16262 (March 22, 2022) (Notice of Filing and Immediate
Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2022-004).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Even though it has been more than two years since the World Health
Organization declared COVID-19 a pandemic, uncertainty still remains
around this disease. The continued presence of COVID-19 variants
including the quickly emerging Omicron BA.4 and BA.5 subvariants,
dissimilar vaccination rates throughout the United States, and the
current medium to high COVID-19 community levels in many states
indicate that COVID-19 remains an active and real public health
concern.\6\ Due to the uncertainty and the lack of a clear timeframe
for a sustained and widespread abatement of COVID-19-related health
concerns and corresponding restrictions,\7\ FINRA believes there is a
continued need for temporary relief beyond July 31, 2022. Accordingly,
FINRA proposes to extend the expiration date of the temporary
amendments in SR-FINRA-2020-015

and SR-FINRA-2020-027 from July 31, 2022, to October 31, 2022.\8\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \6\ For example, there has been a notable upward trend in the
number of daily COVID-19 cases in the United States since April 1,
2022. See https://covid.cdc.gov/covid-data-tracker/#trends_dailycases. In addition, on June 9, 2022, the Biden
Administration announced its operational plan for COVID-19
vaccinations for children under the age of five. See https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases/2022/06/09/fact-sheetbiden-administration-announces-operational-plan-for-covid-19-vaccinations-for-children-under-5/.
    \7\ For instance, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(``CDC'') recommends that people wear a mask in public indoor
settings in areas with a high COVID-19 community level regardless of
vaccination status or individual risk. See https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/prevent-getting-sick/about-face-coverings.html. The CDC also recommends that people wear a mask in
indoor areas of public transportation and transportation hubs to
protect themselves and those around them and help keep travel and
public transportation safer for everyone. See https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/travelers/masks-public-transportation.html.
Furthermore, numerous states currently have mask mandates in certain
settings, such as healthcare and correctional facilities.
    \8\ As a further basis for extending the expiration date to
October 31, 2022, FINRA notes that the Commission recently approved
FINRA's rule proposal to make permanent the temporary amendments to
the electronic service and filing rules originally set forth in SR-
FINRA-2020-015, with some modifications, as described in the order
approving the rule proposal. See Securities Exchange Act Release No.
95147 (June 23, 2022), 87 FR 38803 (June 29, 2022) (Order Approving
File No. SR-FINRA-2022-009). Because the effective date of the
permanent rule amendments, which will be announced in a Regulatory
Notice, will be after July 31, 2022, FINRA is seeking an extension
of the temporary amendments to provide continuity and avoid any
lapse in the temporary amendments to the electronic service and
filing rules during the period before the effective date of the
permanent rule amendments. The temporary amendments to the
electronic service and filing rules--FINRA Rules 1012, 1015(f)(1),
6490, 9132, 9133, 9146, 9321, 9341(c), 9349, 9351, 9522, 9524(a)(3),
9525, 9559, and 9630--will expire on the effective date of the
permanent rule amendments. FINRA notes that the temporary amendments
pertaining to video conference hearings originally set forth in SR-
FINRA-2020-027 were not included in the rule proposal that was
approved by the Commission.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

i. SR-FINRA-2020-015
    As stated in its previous filings, FINRA proposed, and subsequently
extended, the changes set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-015 to temporarily
amend some timing, method of service and other procedural requirements
in FINRA rules during the period in which FINRA's operations are
impacted by the outbreak of COVID-19.\9\ Among other things, the need
for FINRA staff, with limited exceptions, to work remotely and restrict
in-person activities-consistent with the recommendations of public
health officials-have made it challenging to meet some procedural
requirements and perform some functions required under FINRA rules.
FINRA is proposing to extend the expiration date of the temporary
amendments originally set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-015 from July 31,
2022, to October 31, 2022,\10\ because, in addition to providing
continuity to the electronic service and filing rules,\11\ extension of
the rule amendments regarding certain timing requirements and the
format for oral argument for FINRA proceedings \12\ is needed as FINRA
does not anticipate that the COVID-19-related health concerns
necessitating this relief will meaningfully subside by July 31, 2022.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \9\ See Securities Exchange Act Release No. 88917 (May 20,
2020), 85 FR 31832 (May 27, 2020) (Notice of Filing and Immediate
Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2020-015); Securities Exchange
Act Release No. 89055 (June 12, 2020), 85 FR 36928 (June 18, 2020)
(Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-
2020-017); Securities Exchange Act Release No. 89423 (July 29,
2020), 85 FR 47278 (August 4, 2020) (Notice of Filing and Immediate
Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2020-022); Securities Exchange
Act Release No. 90619 (December 9, 2020), 85 FR 81250 (December 15,
2020) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-
FINRA-2020-042); Securities Exchange Act Release No. 91495 (April 7,
2021), 86 FR 19306 (April 13, 2021) (Notice of Filing and Immediate
Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2021-006); Securities Exchange
Act Release No. 92685 (August 17, 2021), 86 FR 47169 (August 23,
2021) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-
FINRA-2021-019); Securities Exchange Act Release No. 93758 (December
13, 2021), 86 FR 71695 (December 17, 2021) (Notice of Filing and
Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2021-031); supra note
5.
    \10\ See id. (outlining the filing history of SR-FINRA-2020-015
and its prior extensions).
    \11\ See supra note 8.
    \12\ These temporary amendments pertain to FINRA Rules
1015(f)(1), 1015(i), 6490, 9341(d), and 9559(q)(2).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

ii. SR-FINRA-2020-027
    The same public health concerns and restrictions, along with a
corresponding backlog of disciplinary cases,\13\ led FINRA to file, and
subsequently extend to July 31, 2022, SR-FINRA-2020-027 to temporarily
amend FINRA Rules 1015, 9261, 9524, and 9830 to grant OHO and the NAC
authority \14\ to conduct hearings in connection with appeals of
Membership Application Program decisions, disciplinary actions,
eligibility proceedings and temporary and permanent cease and desist
orders by video conference, if warranted by the COVID-19-related public
health risks posed by an in-person hearing.\15\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \13\ For example, FINRA began temporarily postponing in-person
hearings as a result of the COVID-19 impacts on March 16, 2020.
    \14\ For OHO hearings under FINRA Rules 9261 and 9830, the
proposed rule change temporarily grants authority to the Chief or
Deputy Chief Hearing Officer to order that a hearing be conducted by
video conference. For NAC hearings under FINRA Rules 1015 and 9524,
this temporary authority is granted to the NAC or the relevant
Subcommittee.
    \15\ See Securities Exchange Act Release No. 89739 (September 2,
2020), 85 FR 55712 (September 9, 2020) (Notice of Filing and
Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2020-027); Securities
Exchange Act Release No. 90619 (December 9, 2020), 85 FR 81250
(December 15, 2020) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of
File No. SR-FINRA-2020-042); Securities Exchange Act Release No.
91495 (April 7, 2021), 86 FR 19306 (April 13, 2021) (Notice of
Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2021-006);
Securities Exchange Act Release No. 92685 (August 17, 2021), 86 FR
47169 (August 23, 2021) (Notice of Filing and Immediate
Effectiveness of File No. SR-FINRA-2021-019); Securities Exchange
Act Release No. 93758 (December 13, 2021), 86 FR 71695 (December 17,
2021) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of File No. SR-
FINRA-2021-031); supra note 5.
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    As set forth in the previous filings, FINRA also relies on the
guidance of its health and safety consultant, in conjunction with
COVID-19 data and guidance issued by public health authorities, to
determine whether the current public health risks presented by an in-
person hearing may warrant a hearing by video conference.\16\ Based on
that guidance and data, FINRA does not believe the COVID-19-related
health concerns necessitating this relief will meaningfully subside by
July 31, 2022, and believes there will be a continued need for this
temporary relief beyond that date.\17\ Accordingly, FINRA proposes to
extend the expiration date of the temporary amendments originally set
forth in SR-FINRA-2020-027 from July 31, 2022, to October 31, 2022.\18\
The extension of these temporary amendments allowing for specified OHO
and NAC hearings to proceed by video conference will allow FINRA's
critical adjudicatory functions to continue to operate effectively in
these extraordinary circumstances--enabling FINRA to fulfill its
statutory obligations to protect investors and maintain fair and
orderly markets--while also protecting the health and safety of hearing
participants.\19\
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    \16\ As noted in SR-FINRA-2020-027, the temporary proposed rule
change grants discretion to OHO and the NAC to order a video
conference hearing. In deciding whether to schedule a hearing by
video conference, OHO and the NAC may consider a variety of other
factors in addition to COVID-19 trends. In SR-FINRA-2020-027, FINRA
provided a non-exhaustive list of other factors OHO and the NAC may
take into consideration, including a hearing participant's
individual health concerns and access to the connectivity and
technology necessary to participate in a video conference hearing.
    \17\ FINRA notes that the proposed extension of the temporary
amendments does not mean a video conference hearing will be ordered
in every case. FINRA strives to hold in-person hearings when it is
safe to do so and began to hold such hearings at a single location
last year. Specifically, FINRA held its first in-person hearing
since the temporary amendments were implemented in July 2021. A
subsequent surge in case numbers for the Delta variant of the COVID-
19 virus caused FINRA's outside health and safety consultant to
recommend in early August against in-person hearings. Accordingly,
the Chief Hearing Officer converted hearings scheduled after mid-
September from in-person to video conference on a case-by-case
basis. In addition to creating a safe environment in which an in-
person hearing may be held, as mentioned above, a number of other
considerations inform whether any given case will be held in-person
or by video conference.
    \18\ See supra note 5.
    \19\ Since the temporary amendments were implemented, OHO and
the NAC have conducted several hearings by video conference. As of
June 28, 2022, OHO has conducted 17 disciplinary hearings by video
conference (decisions have been issued in 15 of these cases). In six
of these disciplinary hearings, all of the parties agreed to proceed
by video conference; the other 11 were ordered to proceed by video
conference by the Chief Hearing Officer. OHO currently has hearings
scheduled in six additional disciplinary matters. OHO intended to
proceed with an in-person hearing for one of these matters in July
2022, but in late June the parties requested that the hearing occur
by video conference because of health concerns. No determination has
yet been made regarding whether the other five hearings will be in-
person or by video conference. Also, as of June 28, 2022, the NAC,
through the relevant Subcommittee, has conducted 16 oral arguments
by video conference in connection with appeals of FINRA disciplinary
proceedings pursuant to FINRA Rule 9341(d), as temporarily amended.
Furthermore, the NAC has conducted via video conference a one-day
evidentiary hearing in a membership application proceeding pursuant
to FINRA Rule 1015, as temporarily amended.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate
effectiveness and has requested that the SEC waive the requirement that
the proposed rule change not become operative for 30 days after the
date of the filing, so FINRA can implement the proposed rule change
immediately.
2. Statutory Basis
    FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the
provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,\20\ which requires, among
other things, that FINRA rules must be designed to prevent fraudulent
and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable
principles of trade, and, in general, to protect investors and the
public interest. FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is also
consistent with Section 15A(b)(8) of the Act,\21\ which requires, among
other things, that FINRA rules provide a fair procedure for the
disciplining of members and persons associated with members.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \20\ 15 U.S.C. 78o-3(b)(6).
    \21\ 15 U.S.C. 78o-3(b)(8).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    The proposed rule change, which extends the expiration date of the
temporary amendments to FINRA rules set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-015,
will continue to provide FINRA, and in some cases another party to a
proceeding, temporary modifications to its procedural requirements in
order to allow FINRA to maintain fair processes and protect investors
while operating in a remote work environment and with corresponding
restrictions on its activities. It is in the public interest, and
consistent with the Act's purpose, for FINRA to operate pursuant to
this temporary relief. The temporary amendments allow FINRA to specify
service and filing methods, extend certain time periods, and modify the
format of oral argument for FINRA disciplinary and eligibility
proceedings and other review processes to cope with the current
pandemic conditions. In addition to ensuring continuity to the
electronic service and filing rules, extending this temporary relief
will further support FINRA's disciplinary and eligibility proceedings
and other review processes that serve a critical role in providing
investor protection and maintaining fair and orderly markets.
    The proposed rule change, which also extends the expiration date of
the temporary amendments to FINRA rules set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-027,
will continue to aid FINRA's efforts to timely conduct hearings in
connection with its core adjudicatory functions. Given the current and
frequently changing COVID-19 conditions and the uncertainty around when
those conditions will see meaningful, widespread and sustained
improvement, without this relief allowing OHO and NAC hearings to
proceed by video conference, FINRA might be required to postpone some
or almost all hearings indefinitely. FINRA must be able to perform its
critical adjudicatory functions to fulfill its statutory obligations to
protect investors and maintain fair and orderly markets. As such, this
relief is essential to FINRA's ability to fulfill its statutory
obligations and allows hearing participants to avoid the serious COVID-
19-related health and safety risks associated with in-person hearings.
    Among other things, this relief will allow OHO to conduct temporary
cease and desist proceedings by video conference so that FINRA can take
immediate action to stop ongoing customer harm and will allow the NAC
to timely provide members, disqualified individuals and other
applicants an approval or denial of their applications. As set forth in
detail in the original filing, this temporary relief allowing OHO and
NAC hearings to proceed by video conference accounts for fair process
considerations and will continue to provide fair process while avoiding
the COVID-19-related public health risks for hearing participants.
Accordingly, the proposed rule change extending this temporary relief
is in the public interest and consistent with the Act's purpose.

B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition

    FINRA does not believe that the temporary proposed rule change will
result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or
appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As set forth in
SR-FINRA-2020-015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027, the proposed rule change is
intended solely to extend temporary relief necessitated by the
continued impacts of the COVID-19 outbreak and the related health and
safety risks of conducting in-person activities. FINRA believes that
the proposed rule change will prevent unnecessary impediments to
FINRA's operations, including its critical adjudicatory processes, and
its ability to fulfill its statutory obligations to protect investors
and maintain fair and orderly markets that would otherwise result if
the temporary amendments were to expire on July 31, 2022.

C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed
Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others

    Written comments were neither solicited nor received.

III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for
Commission Action

    Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i)
significantly affect the protection of investors or the public
interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii)
become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or
such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become
effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act \22\ and Rule 19b-
4(f)(6) thereunder.\23\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \22\ 15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
    \23\ 17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) normally does
not become operative for 30 days after the date of filing. However,
pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), the Commission may designate a
shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of
investors and the public interest. As FINRA requested in connection
with SR-FINRA-2020-015 and related extensions,\24\ FINRA has also asked
the Commission to waive the 30-day operative delay so that this
proposed rule change may become operative immediately upon filing.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \24\ See SR-FINRA-2020-015, 85 FR at 31836. Although FINRA did
not request that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay for
SR-FINRA-2020-027, FINRA did request that the Commission waive the
30-day operative delay for SR-FINRA-2020-042, FINRA-2021-006, FINRA-
2021-019, FINRA-2021-031, and FINRA-2022-004, which extended the
expiration date of the temporary amendments originally set forth in
SR-FINRA-2020-027.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    FINRA has stated that there is a continued need for extending the
relief originally provided in SR-FINRA-2020-015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027
because FINRA does not believe the COVID-19 related health concerns
necessitating this relief will meaningfully subside by July 31, 2022.
Importantly, extending the relief provided in these prior rule changes
immediately upon filing and without a 30-day operative delay will allow
FINRA to continue critical adjudicatory and review processes so that
FINRA may continue to operate effectively and meet its critical
investor protection goals, while also protecting the health

and safety of hearing participants.\25\ In addition, FINRA stated that
extending the temporary relief provided originally in SR-FINRA-2020-
015, the temporary amendments to the electronic service and filing
rules, will provide continuity and help to prevent any lapse in the
temporary amendments during the period before the effective date of the
permanent rule amendments.\26\ The Commission also notes that this
proposal, like SR-FINRA-2020-015 and SR-FINRA-2020-027, provides only
temporary relief during the period in which FINRA's operations are
impacted by COVID-19. As proposed, the temporary amendments pertaining
to video conference hearings, originally set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-
027, would be in place through October 31, 2022; \27\ while the
temporary amendments to the electronic service and filing rules,
originally set forth in SR-FINRA-2020-015, would expire on the
effective date of the permanent rule amendments.\28\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \25\ See supra Item II.A.1; see also SR-FINRA-2020-027, 85 FR at
55712.
    \26\ As noted above, the Commission recently approved FINRA's
proposed rule change to make permanent the temporary amendments to
the electronic service and filing rules originally set forth in SR-
FINRA-2020-015, with some modifications. See supra note 8; see also
Order Approving File No. SR-FINRA-2022-009, 87 FR 38803. FINRA
stated that the effective date of the permanent rule amendments will
be announced in a Regulatory Notice after July 31, 2022. See supra
note 8.
    \27\ As noted above, see supra note 4, FINRA stated that if it
requires temporary relief from the rule requirements identified in
this proposal beyond October 31, 2022, it may submit a separate rule
filing to extend the effectiveness of the temporary relief under
these rules.
    \28\ See supra note 8; see also Order Approving File No. SR-
FINRA-2022-009 at 87 FR 38806.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule
change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule
change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or
appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or
otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission
takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to
determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or
disapproved.

IV. Solicitation of Comments

    Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and
arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule
change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of
the following methods:

Electronic Comments

     Use the Commission's internet comment form (http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml); or
     Send an email to [email protected]. Please include
File Number SR-FINRA-2022-018 on the subject line.

Paper Comments

     Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities
and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.

All submissions should refer to File Number SR-FINRA-2022-018. This
file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To
help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently,
please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on
the Commission's internet website (http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml).
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written
statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with
the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed
rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those
that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions
of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in
the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC
20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and
3:00 p.m. Copies of such filing also will be available for inspection
and copying at the principal office of FINRA. All comments received
will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are
cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying
information from comment submissions. You should submit only
information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions
should refer to File Number SR-FINRA-2022-018 and should be submitted
on or before August 10, 2022.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \29\ 17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).

    For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets,
pursuant to delegated authority.\29\
J. Matthew DeLesDernier,
Assistant Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2022-15446 Filed 7-19-22; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 8011-01-P


[Federal Register Volume 87, Number 191 (Tuesday, October 4, 2022)]
[Notices]
[Page 60236]
[FR Doc No: 2022-21487]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

FAA Advisory Circular 187-1, Flight Standards Service Schedule of
Charges Outside the United States

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of
Transportation (DOT).

ACTION: Notice of availability of agency guidance.

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SUMMARY: This notice announces the availability of FAA Advisory
Circular (AC) 187-1R, Flight Standards Service Schedule of Charges
Outside the United States. The FAA has revised AC 187-1 to reflect
updated schedule of charges for services of Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA) Flight Standards Service (AFS) aviation safety
inspectors (ASI) outside the United States. AC 187-1 has been updated
in accordance with the procedures listed in the Code of the Federal
Register, Appendix A.

DATES: This AC is applicable on October 1, 2022.

ADDRESSES: How to obtain copies: A copy of this publication may be
downloaded from: http://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Ms. Tish Thompkins, Flight Standards
Service, AFS-50, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591;<PHONE_NUMBER>;
[email protected].

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: On April 19, 1995, the FAA amended Title 14
of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 187, ``Fees for
Certification Services and Approvals Performed Outside the United
States'' (60 FR 19628-01, April 19, 1995), which established the
methodology for determining these charges. In this rule, the FAA stated
it would publish these fees in an AC. Refer to Appendix A to Part 187,
section (n). The FAA reviews the actual costs incurred in the services
listed in Appendix 1 at the beginning of each fiscal year. The FAA will
do this using the same fee methodology described in part 187 appendix
A. The FAA will amend the schedule of charges on an annual basis to
either increase or decrease fees, as needed. The FAA will publish each
amended schedule in the Federal Register and as a revision to this AC.
AC 187-1 may be found at https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/.

    Issued in Washington, DC, on September 29, 2022.
Wesley L. Mooty,
Executive Deputy Director, Flight Standards Service (AFX-2A).
[FR Doc. 2022-21487 Filed 10-3-22; 8:45 am]
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[Federal Register Volume 82, Number 27 (Friday, February 10, 2017)]
[Proposed Rules]
[Page 10313]
[FR Doc No: 2017-02490]

=======================================================================
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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Part 71

[Docket No. FAA-2016-9266; Airspace Docket No. 16-ASO-5]

Proposed Amendment of Class E Airspace; Kill Devil Hills, NC:
Withdrawal

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), withdrawal.

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SUMMARY: A Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) published in the
Federal Register on December 12, 2016 amending Class E airspace at
First Flight Airport, Kill Devil Hills, NC is being withdrawn. Upon
review, the FAA found that this is a duplicate of an NPRM published
November 22, 2016.

DATES: Effective 0901 UTC. As of February 10, 2017 the proposed rule
published December 12, 2016, at 81 FR 89399, is withdrawn.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: John Fornito, Operations Support
Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O.
Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia 30320; telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

History

    On December 12, 2016, the FAA published in the Federal Register a
NPRM to establish Class E airspace at Devil Hills, NC (81 FR 89399)
Docket No. FAA-2016-9266. The document is being withdrawn as it was
found to be a duplicate of one published in the Federal Register of
November 22, 2016 (81 FR 83750)

Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71

    Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).

The Withdrawal

    Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the notice
of proposed rulemaking, as published in the Federal Register on
December 12, 2016 (81 FR 89399) (FR Doc. 2016-29630), is hereby
withdrawn.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O.
10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.

    Issued in College Park, Georgia, on December 29, 2016.
Debra L. Hogan,
Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Air
Traffic Organization.
[FR Doc. 2017-02490 Filed 2-9-17; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


[Federal Register Volume 82, Number 78 (Tuesday, April 25, 2017)]
[Notices]
[Page 19114]
[FR Doc No: 2017-08393]

=======================================================================
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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION

Sunshine Act Meeting

    Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the
Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities
and Exchange Commission will hold a closed meeting on Thursday, April
27, 2017 at 2 p.m.
    Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the
Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting.
Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be
present.
    The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has
certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth
in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR
200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit
consideration of the scheduled matter at the closed meeting.
    Commissioner Stein, as duty officer, voted to consider the items
listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
    The subject matter of the closed meeting will be:
    Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
    Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;
    Adjudicatory matters; and
    Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
    At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in
the scheduling of meeting items.
    For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have
been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from
the Office of the Secretary at<PHONE_NUMBER>.

    Dated: April 20, 2017.
Brent J. Fields,
Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2017-08393 Filed 4-21-17; 11:15 am]
BILLING CODE 8011-01-P