[Federal Register Volume 78, Number 1 (Wednesday, January 2, 2013)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 7-9]
[FR Doc No: 2012-31026]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Part 39

[Docket No. FAA-2012-0939; Directorate Identifier 2011-NM-200-AD;
Amendment 39-17298; AD 2012-26-03]
RIN 2120-AA64

Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of
Transportation (DOT).

ACTION: Final rule.

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SUMMARY: We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain
Airbus Model A330-202, -203, -223, -243, -302, -323, -342, and -343
airplanes; and Model A340-313 airplanes. This AD was prompted by
reports that a specific batch of cargo doors might have deviations in
quality related to door structure, such as irregular bore holes,
improper application of sealant and paint, or uncleanliness. This AD
requires inspecting to identify the part and serial numbers of the
forward and aft cargo doors, and replacing the affected cargo doors. We
are issuing this AD to prevent the degraded structural capability of
the cargo door, a primary structure, from leading to failure of the
door, which could lead to a breach through the door or the door
detaching from the airplane, resulting in potential rapid
decompression.

DATES: This AD becomes effective February 6, 2013.
    The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by
reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of February 6,
2013.

ADDRESSES: You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at http://www.regulations.gov or in person at the U.S. Department of
Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor,
Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer,
International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA,
1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425)
227-1138; fax<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

Discussion

    We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR
part 39 to include an AD that would

apply to the specified products. That NPRM was published in the Federal
Register on September 20, 2012 (77 FR 58336). That NPRM proposed to
correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The Mandatory
Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) states:

    Investigations have shown that a specific batch of cargo doors
might have deviations in quality, such as irregular bore holes,
improper application of sealant and paint or cleanliness. These
production deviations are related to the quality of the door
structure.
    This condition, if not corrected, may degrade the structural
integrity of the affected Forward (Fwd) and Aft cargo doors.
    For the reasons described above, this [European Aviation Safety
Agency (EASA)] AD requires a one-time inspection to identify the
[part and serial numbers of the] Fwd and Aft cargo doors, and
replacement of the affected cargo doors.

* * * * *

The unsafe condition is the degraded structural capability of the cargo
door, a primary structure, which could lead to failure of the door,
which could detach from the airplane or have a breach through the door,
resulting in potential rapid decompression. Required actions include
contacting the FAA or EASA (or its delegated agent) for repair
instructions for any door part/serial number that cannot be identified
for a specified airplane. You may obtain further information by
examining the MCAI in the AD docket.

Comments

    We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing
this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (77 FR 58336, September
20, 2012) or on the determination of the cost to the public.

Conclusion

    We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and
the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed, except for
minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
     Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the
NPRM (77 FR 58336, September 20, 2012) for correcting the unsafe
condition; and
     Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was
already proposed in the NPRM (77 FR 58336, September 20, 2012).

Costs of Compliance

    We estimate that this AD will affect about 6 products of U.S.
registry. We also estimate that it will take about 2 work-hours per
product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average
labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate
the cost of this AD to the U.S. operators to be $1,020, or $170 per
product.
    In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would
take about 52 work-hours and require parts costing $0, for a cost of
$4,420 per product. The manufacturer has agreed to reimburse these
labor costs. Where the service information lists required parts costs
that are covered under warranty, we have assumed that there will be no
charge for these parts. As we do not control warranty coverage for
affected parties, some parties may incur costs higher than estimated
here. We have no way of determining the number of products that may
need these actions.

Authority for This Rulemaking

    Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to
issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the
authority of the FAA Administrator. ``Subtitle VII: Aviation
Programs,'' describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's
authority.
    We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in
``Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General
requirements.'' Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with
promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing
regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator
finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within
the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition
that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this
rulemaking action.

Regulatory Findings

    We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications
under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct
effect on the States, on the relationship between the national
government and the States, or on the distribution of power and
responsibilities among the various levels of government.
    For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
    1. Is not a ``significant regulatory action'' under Executive Order
12866;
    2. Is not a ``significant rule'' under the DOT Regulatory Policies
and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
    3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
    4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or
negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria
of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
    We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to
comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.

Examining the AD Docket

    You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at http://www.regulations.gov; or in person at the Docket Operations office
between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal
holidays. The AD docket contains the NPRM (77 FR 58336, September 20,
2012), the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other
information. The street address for the Docket Operations office
(telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>) is in the ADDRESSES section. Comments will
be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.

List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39

    Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by
reference, Safety.

Adoption of the Amendment

    Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the
Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:

PART 39--AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES

0
1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.

Sec.  39.13  [Amended]

0
2. The FAA amends Sec.  39.13 by adding the following new AD:

2012-26-03 Airbus: Amendment 39-17298. Docket No. FAA-2012-0939;
Directorate Identifier 2011-NM-200-AD.

(a) Effective Date

    This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective February 6,
2013.

(b) Affected ADs

    None.

(c) Applicability

    This AD applies to Airbus airplanes, certificated in any
category, as identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD.
    (1) Model A330-202, -203, -223, -243, -302, -323, -342, and -343
airplanes, manufacturer serial numbers (MSN) 0796, 0832, 0840, 0845,
0849, 0853, 0855, 0861, 0862, 0866, 0868, 0871, 0873, 0876, 0879,
0882, 0885, 0887, 0889, 0891, 0892, 0896, 0898, 0899, 0903, 0904,
0905, 0907, 0913, 0927, 0930, 0935, 0936, 0937, 0940, 0943, 0944,
0946, 0949, 0952, 0954, 0964, 0971, 0975, 0982 through 0986
inclusive, 0988, 0989, 0990, 0992, 0994, 0995, 0997, 0998, 0999,
1001, 1002, 1003, 1006, 1007, 1009 through 1016 inclusive, 1018,
1020, 1022, 1023, 1026, 1028, 1029, 1037, 1045, 1049, 1052, 1053,
1055, 1058, 1060, 1061, 1065 through 1067 inclusive, 1071 through
1075 inclusive, 1077, 1080, and 1082.

    (2) Model A340-313 airplanes, MSN 0955.

(d) Subject

    Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52: Doors.

(e) Reason

    This AD was prompted by reports that a specific batch of cargo
doors might have deviations in quality related to door structure,
such as irregular bore holes, improper application of sealant and
paint, or uncleanliness. We are issuing this AD to prevent the
degraded structural capability of the cargo door, a primary
structure, from leading to failure of the door, which could detach
from the airplane or have a breach through the door, resulting in
potential rapid decompression.

(f) Compliance

    You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD
performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions
have already been done.

(g) Inspection

    At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and
(g)(2) of this AD: Inspect to identify the part number and serial
number of the airplane's forward and aft cargo doors, as applicable
to MSN, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus
Mandatory Service Bulletin A330-52-3083, dated May 31, 2011 (for
Model A330 airplanes); or Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A340-52-
4093, dated May 31, 2011 (for Model A340 airplanes). A review of
airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this
inspection if the part number and serial number of the door can be
conclusively determined from that review.
    (1) Prior to the accumulation of 7,400 total flight cycles, or
72 months after the airplane's first flight, whichever occurs first.
    (2) Within 60 days after the effective date of this AD.

(h) Replacement

    If, during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD,
the part number and serial number of the airplane's forward and/or
aft cargo doors, as applicable to airplane MSN, are identified in
Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A330-52-3083, dated May 31, 2011
(for Model A330 airplanes); or Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin
A340-52-4093, dated May 31, 2011 (for Model A340 airplanes): Before
further flight, replace the affected door with a new or serviceable
door, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus
Mandatory Service Bulletin A330-52-3083, dated May 31, 2011 (for
Model A330 airplanes); or Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A340-52-
4093 (for Model A340 airplanes), dated May 31, 2011.

(i) Repair

    If, during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD,
there is any discrepancy between the installed forward and/or aft
cargo doors part/serial number and the airplane MSN, as that part/
serial number and MSN are identified in Airbus Mandatory Service
Bulletin A330-52-3083, dated May 31, 2011 (for Model A330
airplanes); or Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A340-52-4093, dated
May 31, 2011 (for Model A340 airplanes): Within 10 days after
accomplishing the inspection, contact the Manager, International
Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, or the
European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) (or its delegated agent), for
further instructions and time limits, and accomplish those
instructions within the specified time limits.

(j) Parts Installation Prohibition

    As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install on
any airplane a forward or aft cargo door that was removed from any
airplane as required by paragraph (h) of this AD.

(k) Other FAA AD Provisions

    The following provisions also apply to this AD:
    (1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager,
International Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for
this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In
accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal
inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate.
If sending information directly to the International Branch, send it
to ATTN: Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch,
ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW.,
Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>; fax (425)
227-1149. Information may be emailed to<EMAIL_ADDRESS>Before using any approved AMOC, notify your
appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector,
the manager of the local flight standards district office/
certificate holding district office. The AMOC approval letter must
specifically reference this AD.
    (2) Airworthy Product: For any requirement in this AD to obtain
corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these
actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered
FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority
(or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product
is airworthy before it is returned to service.

(l) Related Information

    Refer to MCAI EASA Airworthiness Directive 2011-0177, dated
September 15, 2011 (corrected September 28, 2011), and the service
information identified in paragraphs (l)(1) and (l)(2) of this AD,
for related information.
    (1) Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A330-52-3083, dated May
31, 2011.
    (2) Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A340-52-4093, dated May
31, 2011.

(m) Material Incorporated by Reference

    (1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the
incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed
in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
    (2) You must use this service information as applicable to do
the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
    (i) Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A330-52-3083, dated May
31, 2011.
    (ii) Airbus Mandatory Service Bulletin A340-52-4093, dated May
31, 2011.
    (3) For service information identified in this AD, contact
Airbus SAS--Airworthiness Office--EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice
Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96;
fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
Internet http://www.airbus.com.
    (4) You may review copies of the service information at the FAA,
Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA.
For information on the availability of this material at the FAA,
call<PHONE_NUMBER>.
    (5) You may view this service information that is incorporated
by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration
(NARA). For information on the availability of this material at
NARA, call<PHONE_NUMBER>, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.

    Issued in Renton, Washington, on December 14, 2012.
Kalene C. Yanamura,
Acting Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification
Service.
[FR Doc. 2012-31026 Filed 12-31-12; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


[Federal Register Volume 81, Number 27 (Wednesday, February 10, 2016)]
[Notices]
[Pages 7171-7172]
[FR Doc No: 2016-02607]

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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION

[Release No. 34-77055; File No. SR-BOX-2016-02]

Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice
of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To
Amend the Fee Schedule To Lower Certain Fees for Non-Auction
Transactions on the BOX Market LLC (``BOX'') Options Facility

February 4, 2016.
    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
(the ``Act''),\1\ and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,\2\ notice is hereby given
that on January 27, 2016, BOX Options Exchange LLC (the ``Exchange'')
filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (``Commission'') the
proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which
Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Exchange filed the
proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,\3\
and Rule 19b-4(f)(2) thereunder,\4\ which renders the proposal
effective upon filing with the Commission. The Commission is publishing
this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from
interested persons.
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    \1\ 15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
    \2\ 17 CFR 240.19b-4.
    \3\ 15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
    \4\ 17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(2).
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I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of the
Substance of the Proposed Rule Change

    The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission
(``Commission'') a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule to
lower certain fees for Non-Auction transactions on the BOX Market LLC
(``BOX'') options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant
to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become
operative on February 1, 2016. The text of the proposed rule change is
available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the
Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet
Web site at http://boxexchange.com.

II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and
Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change

    In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements
concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and
discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The
text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in
Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in
Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such
statements.

A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and
Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change

1. Purpose
    The Exchange proposes to make changes to Section I.A. of the BOX
Fee Schedule, Exchange Fees for Non-Auction Transactions.
    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend certain fees in the
pricing model outlined in Section I.A. (Non-Auction Transactions).\5\
In this section, fees and credits are assessed depending on upon three
factors: (i) The account type of the Participant submitting the order;
(ii) whether the Participant is a liquidity provider or liquidity
taker; and (iii) the account type of the contra party. Non-Auction
Transactions in Penny Pilot Classes are assessed different fees or
credits than Non-Auction Transactions in Non-Penny Pilot Classes.
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    \5\ Non-Auction Transactions are those transactions executed on
the BOX Book.
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    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to reduce the Taker fees for
Professional Customers, Broker Dealers and Market Makers interacting
with Public Customers in Penny Pilot Classes. The fee for Professional
Customers and Broker Dealers taking liquidity against Public Customers
will be lowered to $0.50 from $0.64 and the fee for Market Makers
taking liquidity against Public Customers will be lowered to $0.50 from
$0.55.
    These transactions will remain exempt from the Liquidity Fees and
Credits outlined in Section II of the BOX Fee Schedule. The revised fee
structure for Non-Auction Transactions will be as follows:

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Penny pilot classes           Non-penny pilot classes
         Account type             Contra party   ---------------------------------------------------------------
                                                     Maker fee       Taker fee       Maker fee       Taker fee
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Public Customer...............  Public Customer.           $0.00           $0.00           $0.00           $0.00
                                Professional                0.00            0.00            0.00            0.00
                                 Customer/Broker
                                 Dealer.
                                Market Maker....            0.00            0.00            0.00            0.00
Professional Customer or        Public Customer.            0.60            0.50            0.95            1.07
 Broker Dealer.
                                Professional                0.25            0.40            0.35            0.40
                                 Customer/Broker
                                 Dealer.
                                Market Maker....            0.25            0.44            0.35            0.44
Market Maker..................  Public Customer.            0.51            0.50            0.85            1.03
                                Professional                0.00            0.05            0.00            0.10
                                 Customer/Broker
                                 Dealer.
                                Market Maker....            0.00            0.29            0.00            0.29
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    The Exchange also proposes to make non-substantive technical
chances [sic] to Section I.A. of the BOX Fee Schedule (Non-Auction
Transactions) and remove references to credits.
2. Statutory Basis
    The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the
requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section
6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,\6\ in particular, in that it provides
for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other
charges among BOX Participants and other persons using its facilities
and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers
or dealers. The proposed changes will allow the Exchange to be
competitive with other exchanges and to apply fees and credits [sic] in
a manner that is equitable among all BOX Participants. Further, the
Exchange operates within a highly competitive market in which market
participants can readily direct order flow to any other competing
exchange if they determine fees at a particular exchange to be
excessive.
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    \6\ 15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
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    The Exchange believes it is equitable, reasonable and not unfairly
discriminatory to assess fees according to the account type of the
Participant originating the order and the contra party. This fee
structure has been in place on the Exchange for some time and the
Exchange is simply adjusting certain credits [sic] within the
structure.\7\ The result of this structure is that a Participant does
not know the fee it will be charged when submitting certain orders.
Therefore, the Participant must recognize that it could be charged the
highest applicable fee on the Exchange's schedule, which may, instead,
be lowered or changed to a credit depending upon how the order
interacts.
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    \7\ See Securities Exchange Act Release No. 73547 (November 6,
2014), 79 FR 67520 (November 13, 2014) (Notice of Filing and
Immediate Effectiveness of SR-BOX-2014-25).
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    The Exchange believes the proposed fees for Non-Auction [sic] for
Professional Customers, Broker Dealers and Market Makers when taking
liquidity against Public Customers are reasonable, equitable and not
unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes these fees are
reasonable as they are in line with the current fees assessed by other
competing exchanges.\8\
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    \8\ Miami Securities International Exchange, LLC (``MIAX'')
charges $0.45 to firms and $0.47 to non-MIAX market makers, broker
dealers and public customers other than priority customers for
execution in Penny Pilot issues and NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC (``PHLX'')
charges $0.48 to professional customers, broker dealers and firms
for execution in Penny Pilot issues. In addition, NASDAQ Options
Market LLC (``NOM'') and BATS BZX Exchange (``BATS'') charge a $0.50
take fee for removing liquidity in Penny Pilot issues.
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B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition

    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will
impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in
furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the
proposed adjustments to fees and rebates [sic] in the Non-Auction
Transactions fee structure will not impose a burden on competition
among various Exchange Participants. Rather, BOX believes that the
changes will result in the Participants being charged appropriately for
these transactions and are designed to enhance competition in Non-
Auction transactions on BOX. Submitting an order is entirely voluntary
and Participants can determine which type of order they wish to submit,
if any, to the Exchange. Further, the Exchange believes that this
proposal will enhance competition between exchanges because it is
designed to allow the Exchange to better compete with other exchanges
for order flow.

C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed
Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others

    No written comments were either solicited or received.

III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for
Commission Action

    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section
19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act \9\ and Rule 19b-4(f)(2)
thereunder,\10\ because it establishes or changes a due, or fee.
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    \9\ 15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
    \10\ 17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(2).
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    At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule
change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule
change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or
appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or
would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission
takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to
determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.

IV. Solicitation of Comments

    Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and
arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule
change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of
the following methods:

Electronic Comments

     Use the Commission's Internet comment form (http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml); or
     Send an email to<EMAIL_ADDRESS>Please include
File Number SR-BOX-2016-02 on the subject line.

Paper Comments

     Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities
and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.

All submissions should refer to File Number SR-BOX-2016-02. This file
number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help
the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently,
please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on
the Commission's Internet Web site (http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all
written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are
filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to
the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other
than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the
provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and
printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE.,
Washington, DC 20549 on official business days between the hours of
10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of such filing also will be available
for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All
comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does
not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should
submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All
submissions should refer to File Number SR-BOX-2016-02, and should be
submitted on or before March 2, 2016.

    For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets,
pursuant to delegated authority.\11\
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    \11\ 17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
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Robert W. Errett,
Deputy Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2016-02607 Filed 2-9-16; 8:45 am]
 BILLING CODE 8011-01-P


[Federal Register Volume 85, Number 62 (Tuesday, March 31, 2020)]
[Notices]
[Pages 17942-17943]
[FR Doc No: 2020-06596]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Office of the Secretary

[Docket No. DOT-OST-2020-0023]

Regional Infrastructure Accelerator Program

AGENCY: Build America Bureau, U.S. Department of Transportation.

ACTION: Request for Information (RFI)--Extension of comment period.

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SUMMARY: This notice extends the comment period for responding to this
RFI for an additional 30-days. The full text of the original RFI
follows: The Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (FAST),
enacted in December 2015, authorized the establishment of a Regional
Infrastructure Accelerator Demonstration Program (the Program) to
assist entities in developing improved infrastructure priorities and
financing strategies for the accelerated development of a project that
is eligible for funding under the Transportation Infrastructure Finance
and Innovation Act (TIFIA) Program. The Further Consolidated
Appropriations Act, 2020 enacted on December 20, 2019 appropriated $5
million for this Program.

DATES: Responses to this RFI are due no later than 11:59 p.m. 30 days
after publication of this notice. The Bureau may hold an RFI
information session(s) before the due date.

ADDRESSES: All responses MUST be submitted electronically via email to
the Bureau at<EMAIL_ADDRESS>Questions regarding the RFI may be submitted
to the Bureau at<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: For further information regarding this
RFI please contact Sam Beydoun via email at<EMAIL_ADDRESS>or via
telephone at<PHONE_NUMBER>. A TDD is available at<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
    The Build America Bureau (the Bureau) of the U.S. Department of
Transportation (Department or DOT) is seeking input from interested
parties with the intent to gather as much information as possible
before implementing the Program.
    The Bureau is issuing this RFI on the most effective, transparent
and expedient way to implement the Program. Information gleaned from
this effort will help inform the development of the Program and
approach to designating and funding Regional Infrastructure
Accelerators that will: (1) Serve a defined geographic area; and (2)
act as a resource to qualified entities in the geographic area in
accordance with Section 1441 of the FAST Act.

Background

    The Bureau is responsible for driving transportation infrastructure
development projects in the United States through innovative financing
programs. Its mission is to provide access to the Bureau's credit
programs in a streamlined, expedient and transparent manner. In
accomplishing its mission, the Bureau also provides technical
assistance and encourages innovative best practices in project
planning, financing, delivery, and monitoring. The Bureau draws upon
the full resources of the Department of Transportation to best utilize
the expertise of the Department's Operating Administrations while
promoting a culture of innovation and customer service.
    The Transportation Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act of
1998 \1\ established a Federal credit program (TIFIA Program) for
eligible transportation projects under which the Department may provide
three forms of credit assistance--secured (direct) loans, loan
guarantees, and standby lines of credit. The TIFIA Program's
fundamental goal is to leverage federal funds by attracting substantial
private and other non-Federal co-investment to support critical
improvements to the Nation's surface transportation system. Eligible
recipients of TIFIA credit assistance include State departments of
transportation, transit operators, special authorities, local
governments and private entities.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \1\ Codified as 23 U.S.C. 601-609.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

Demonstration Program

    Section 1441 of the FAST Act (https://www.transportation.gov/buildamerica/programs-and-services/regional-infrastructure-accelerators) authorizes the Program to assist in developing improved
infrastructure priorities and financing strategies for the accelerated
development of eligible projects. It is envisioned that Regional
Infrastructure Accelerator(s) will act as a resource and help
facilitate delivery of projects within a designated geographic region
while promoting investment in covered infrastructure projects. The
Further Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2020 appropriated $5 million
to carry out the Program.
    The goal of this RFI is to engage interested parties to obtain
input into the most effective, transparent and expedient ways to
structure and deliver the Program. Respondents to this RFI are
encouraged to provide related information and answers to one or more of
the following:

Structure

    (1) What would be an effective form of the accelerator that could
influence the development of infrastructure projects, and what type of
structure and authority would be required for the establishment of a
regional accelerator? Are there examples of such entities from around
the country and abroad, or in other sectors that could be used as a
model for the Program?
    (2) What barriers such as regulatory, technical and institutional
(public or

private) would hinder implementation? What authority should the
accelerator(s) have to effectively carry out its mission?

Geographic Diversity

    (1) What is the most effective regional approach in achieving
geographic diversity?
    (2) What consideration should be given to urban versus rural areas,
regional verses statewide or multi-State accelerators?
    (3) Given the appropriated amount ($5 million), what would be the
optimum range and most effective number of awards for regional
accelerators? What would be an appropriate size program to consider in
addressing the needs of priority infrastructure projects in rural
areas?

Qualifications

    (1) What resources, competencies and experience would be required
from and within an accelerator? The approach should consider the
resources required in accelerating the development of smaller rural
projects and assisting inexperienced or under-resourced regions.
    (2) If external resources and expertise would be contemplated, what
would be the acquisition strategy while ensuring transparency and
accountability?
    (3) What is the best way to conduct an effective and transparent
selection process? What evaluation criteria should the Bureau consider?

Approach

    (1) What is the most effective approach to achieve the goals of the
Program through an accelerator? In responding, please address
considerations for the creation, selection and designation of regional
accelerator(s).
    (2) What actions are required to plan, implement and assess
effectiveness of regional accelerators? If your response considers a
phased approach, what would be the activities, resources and timelines
for each phase? If new entities are considered, how much time would be
needed to stand up a regional accelerator and what would be the major
challenges?
    (3) How could an accelerator leverage the Federal funding beyond
the initial Federal support? If feasible, could a standalone, self-
funded and sustainable model continue to deliver the intended benefits
under the Program?
    (4) Rural transportation infrastructure is of critical interest to
the Department. How could Regional Infrastructure Accelerators assist
in supporting priority programs in the region such as Rural
Opportunities to Use Transportation for Economic Success (ROUTES) and
the Bureau's Railroad Rehabilitation & Improvement Financing (RRIF)
credit program that further accelerate projects?
Measures of Success
    (1) How would Bureau assess and monitor the success of the program
in accomplishing the goals and objectives?
    (2) What would be appropriate key performance indicators that help
measure the effectiveness of this demonstration program? Please
consider the planned activities under the Program as indicated in
Section 1441 of the FAST Act.

Other Considerations

    (1) What else should the Bureau consider (in addition to the
statutory criteria in Section 1441 of the FAST Act) and/or do to ensure
an effective and successful regional accelerator program?

RFI Review

    Individuals or entities wishing to respond to the RFI should state
their role as well as knowledge and experience in developing or
delivering such programs. The Bureau may request additional clarifying
information from any or all respondents. Responses shall not exceed 10
pages and have no smaller than 12-point font with 1-inch margin all
around. Any additional documents (e.g., white papers, brochure
materials) would be considered. However, only the first 10 pages will
be reviewed. The Bureau is not seeking and will not accept any
unsolicited proposals through this RFI.
    This RFI does NOT constitute a Request for Proposal and is not to
be construed as a commitment, implied or otherwise, by the Bureau or
the Department that a procurement action will be issued. Any response
related to this RFI is not a request to be added to a bidders list or
to receive a copy of a solicitation. There is no entitlement to payment
for direct or indirect costs or charges arising as a result of any
potential inquiries regarding this solicitation. The Bureau may not
respond to any specific questions or comments submitted in response to
this notice or information provided as a result of this notification.
This RFI is solely for information and planning purposes and should not
be construed as a commitment by Bureau or Department for any other
purpose.
    All interested parties are encouraged to respond fully to this RFI.
The Bureau is in no way obligated by the information received and
submission by respondents to the RFI is strictly voluntary. Not
responding to the RFI does not preclude participation in any future
procurement or grant program, if any is issued. However, the Bureau
places tremendous value on information received and may utilize it to
implement and finalize its Program development strategy.
    ALL INFORMATION SUBMITTED SHALL BE UNCLASSIFIED. DO NOT SUBMIT ANY
PROPRIATARY OR PRICING INFORMATION.
    Issued in Washington, DC, on February 24, 2020.
    THIS NOTICE IS HEREBY AMENDED TO EXTEND THE RESPONSE DUE DATE BY
ADDITIONAL 30 DAYS FROM THE ORGINAL DUE DATE AS STATED IN THE DATES
SECTION ABOVE.

    THIS AMENDMENT IS ISSUED IN WASHINGTON, DC, ON MARCH 23, 2020.

Morteza Farajian,
Executive Director.
[FR Doc. 2020-06596 Filed 3-30-20; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P


[Federal Register Volume 88, Number 28 (Friday, February 10, 2023)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 8740-8743]
[FR Doc No: 2023-02782]

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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Part 39

[Docket No. FAA-2022-1411; Project Identifier MCAI-2022-00912-T;
Amendment 39-22320; AD 2023-02-13]
RIN 2120-AA64

Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

ACTION: Final rule.

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SUMMARY: The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2020-21-
19, which applied to certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX
airplanes. AD 2020-21-19 required

revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable,
to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations. This
AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive
airworthiness limitations are necessary. This AD continues to require
the actions in AD 2020-21-19, and also requires revising the existing
maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate
additional new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations; as
specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which
is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the
unsafe condition on these products.

DATES: This AD is effective March 17, 2023.
    The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by
reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 17,
2023.
    The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by
reference of a certain other publication listed in this AD as of
December 7, 2020 (85 FR 69142, November 2, 2020).

ADDRESSES:
    AD Docket: You may examine the AD docket at regulations.gov under
Docket No. FAA-2022-1411; or in person at Docket Operations between 9
a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD
docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness
information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The
address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation,
Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200
New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
    Material Incorporated by Reference:
     For material incorporated by reference in this AD, contact
EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221
8999 000; email [email protected]; website easa.europa.eu. You may
find this material on the EASA website at ad.easa.europa.eu.
     You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness
Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des
Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the
FAA, call<PHONE_NUMBER>. It is also available in the AD docket at
regulations.gov under Docket No. FAA-2022-1411.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer,
Large Aircraft Section, International Validation Branch, FAA, 2200
South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone<PHONE_NUMBER>; email
[email protected].

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

Background

    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14
CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2020-21-19, Amendment 39-21292 (85 FR
69142, November 2, 2020) (AD 2020-21-19). AD 2020-21-19 applied to
certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX airplanes. AD 2020-21-19
required revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as
applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness
limitations. The FAA issued AD 2020-21-19 to address reduced structural
integrity of the airplane. AD 2020-21-19 specifies that accomplishing
the actions required by paragraph (g) or (i) of that AD terminates the
requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of AD 2010-26-05, Amendment 39-16544
(75 FR 79952, December 21, 2010) for Dassault Aviation Model FALCON
900EX airplanes, serial numbers 1 through 96 inclusive, and serial
numbers 98 through 119 inclusive. This AD therefore continues to allow
that terminating action.
    The NPRM published in the Federal Register on November 10, 2022 (87
FR 67849). The NPRM was prompted by AD 2022-0144, dated July 11, 2022,
issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of
the European Union (EASA AD 2022-0144) (referred to after this as the
MCAI). The MCAI states that new or more restrictive airworthiness
limitations have been developed.
    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at regulations.gov under
Docket No. FAA-2022-1411.
    In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to continue to require the actions in
AD 2020-21-19 and to require revising the existing maintenance or
inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate additional new or
more restrictive airworthiness limitations, as specified in EASA AD
2022-0144.
    The FAA is issuing this AD to address reduced structural integrity
of the airplane.

Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive

Comments

    The FAA received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of
the cost to the public.

Conclusion

    This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another
country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to
the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it
has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI
referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data and determined
that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the
FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product.
Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in
the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any
operator.

Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51

    EASA AD 2022-0144 specifies new or more restrictive airworthiness
limitations for airplane structures and safe life limits.
    This AD also requires EASA AD 2020-0116, dated May 20, 2020, which
the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by
reference as of December 7, 2020 (85 FR 69142, November 2, 2020).
    This material is reasonably available because the interested
parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by
the means identified in the ADDRESSES section.

Costs of Compliance

    The FAA estimates that this AD affects 88 airplanes of U.S.
registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
    The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the retained
actions from AD 2020-21-19 to be $7,650 (90 work-hours x $85 per work-
hour).
    The FAA has determined that revising the existing maintenance or
inspection program takes an average of 90 work-hours per operator,
although the agency recognizes that this number may vary from operator
to operator. Since operators incorporate maintenance or inspection
program changes for their affected fleet(s), the FAA has determined
that a per-operator estimate is more accurate than a per-airplane
estimate.
    The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the new actions
to be $7,650 (90 work-hours x $85 per work-hour).

Authority for This Rulemaking

    Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to
issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the
authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,
describes in more

detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
    The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in
Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.
Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight
of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for
practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary
for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that
authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to
exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.

Regulatory Findings

    This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order
13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States,
on the relationship between the national government and the States, or
on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various
levels of government.
    For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
    (1) Is not a ``significant regulatory action'' under Executive
Order 12866,
    (2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
    (3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or
negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria
of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.

List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39

    Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by
reference, Safety.

The Amendment

    Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the
Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:

PART 39--AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES

0
1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:

    Authority:  49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.

Sec.  39.13  [Amended]

0
2. The FAA amends Sec.  39.13 by:
0
a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2020-21-19, Amendment 39-21292 (85
FR 69142, November 2, 2020); and
0
b. Adding the following new airworthiness directive:

2023-02-13 Dassault Aviation: Amendment 39-22320; Docket No. FAA-
2022-1411; Project Identifier MCAI-2022-00912-T.

(a) Effective Date

    This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 17, 2023.

(b) Affected ADs

    (1) This AD replaces AD 2020-21-19, Amendment 39-21292 (85 FR
69142, November 2, 2020) (AD 2020-21-19).
    (2) This AD affects AD 2010-26-05, Amendment 39-16544 (75 FR
79952, December 21, 2010) (AD 2010-26-05).

(c) Applicability

    This AD applies to Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX
airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European
Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2022-0144, dated July 11,
2022 (EASA AD 2022-0144).

(d) Subject

    Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 05, Time Limits/
Maintenance Checks.

(e) Unsafe Condition

    This AD was prompted by a determination that new or more
restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. The FAA is
issuing this AD to address reduced structural integrity of the
airplane.

(f) Compliance

    Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified,
unless already done.

(g) Retained Revision of the Existing Maintenance or Inspection
Program, With a New Terminating Action

    This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD
2020-21-19, with a new terminating action. Except as specified in
paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and
compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2020-
0116, dated May 20, 2020 (EASA AD 2020-0116). Accomplishing the
revision of the existing maintenance or inspection program required
by paragraph (j) of this AD terminates the requirements of this
paragraph.

(h) Retained Exceptions to EASA AD 2020-0116, With No Changes

    This paragraph restates the exceptions specified in paragraph
(j) of AD 2020-21-10, with no changes.
    (1) The requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA
AD 2020-0116 do not apply to this AD.
    (2) Paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2020-0116 specifies revising ``the
approved AMP'' within 12 months after its effective date, but this
AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program,
as applicable, to incorporate the ``limitations, tasks and
associated thresholds and intervals'' specified in paragraph (3) of
EASA AD 2020-0116 within 90 days after December 7, 2020 (the
effective date of AD 2020-21-19).
    (3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in
paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2020-0116 is at the applicable ``associated
thresholds'' specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2020-0116, or
within 90 days after December 7, 2020 (the effective date of AD
2020-21-19), whichever occurs later.
    (4) The provisions specified in paragraphs (4) and (5) of EASA
AD 2020-0116 do not apply to this AD.
    (5) The ``Remarks'' section of EASA AD 2020-0116 does not apply
to this AD.

(i) Retained Restrictions on Alternative Actions and Intervals, With a
New Exception

    This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (k) of AD
2020-21-19, with a new exception. Except as required by paragraph
(j) of this AD, after the maintenance or inspection program has been
revised as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative
actions (e.g., inspections) and intervals are allowed unless they
are approved as specified in the provisions of the ``Ref.
Publications'' section of EASA AD 2020-0116.

(j) New Revision of the Existing Maintenance or Inspection Program

    Except as specified in paragraph (k) of this AD: Comply with all
required actions and compliance times specified in, and in
accordance with, EASA AD 2022-0144. Accomplishing the revision of
the existing maintenance or inspection program required by this
paragraph terminates the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD.

(k) Exceptions to EASA AD 2022-0144

    (1) The requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA
AD 2022-0144 do not apply to this AD.
    (2) Paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2022-0144 specifies revising ``the
approved AMP'' within 12 months after its effective date, but this
AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program,
as applicable, within 90 days after the effective date of this AD.
    (3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in
paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2022-0144 is at the applicable ``associated
thresholds'' as incorporated by the requirements of paragraph (3) of
EASA AD 2022-0144, or within 90 days after the effective date of
this AD, whichever occurs later.
    (4) The provisions specified in paragraphs (4) and (5) of EASA
AD 2022-0144 do not apply to this AD.
    (5) The ``Remarks'' section of EASA AD 2022-0144 does not apply
to this AD.

(l) New Provisions for Alternative Actions and Intervals

    After the existing maintenance or inspection program has been
revised as required by paragraph (j) of this AD, no alternative
actions (e.g., inspections) and intervals are allowed unless they
are approved as specified in the provisions of the ``Ref.
Publications'' section of EASA AD 2022-0144.

(m) Terminating Action for Certain Actions in AD 2010-26-05

    Accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (g) or (j) of
this AD terminates the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of AD 2010-
26-05, for Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX airplanes, serial
numbers 1 through 96

inclusive, and serial numbers 98 through 119 inclusive only.

(n) Additional AD Provisions

    The following provisions also apply to this AD:
    (1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager,
International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve
AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR
39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your
principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as
appropriate. If sending information directly to the International
Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified
in paragraph (o) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: [email protected]. Before using any approved AMOC, notify your
appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector,
the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
    (2) Contacting the Manufacturer: For any requirement in this AD
to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be
accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International
Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Dassault Aviation's EASA Design
Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval
must include the DOA-authorized signature.

(o) Additional Information

    For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez,
Aerospace Engineer, Large Aircraft Section, International Validation
Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone
206-231-3226; email [email protected].

(p) Material Incorporated by Reference

    (1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the
incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed
in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
    (2) You must use this service information as applicable to do
the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
    (3) The following service information was approved for IBR on
March 17, 2023.
    (i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2022-0144,
dated July 11, 2022.
    (ii) [Reserved]
    (4) The following service information was approved for IBR on
December 7, 2020 (85 FR 69142, November 2, 2020).
    (i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2020-0116,
dated May 20, 2020.
    (ii) [Reserved]
    (5) For EASA ADs 2022-0144 and 2020-0116, contact EASA, Konrad-
Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000;
email [email protected]; website easa.europa.eu. You may find these
EASA ADs on the EASA website at ad.easa.europa.eu.
    (6) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness
Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St.,
Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material
at the FAA, call<PHONE_NUMBER>.
    (7) You may view this material that is incorporated by reference
at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For
information on the availability of this material at NARA, email
[email protected], or go to: www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.

    Issued on January 25, 2023.
Christina Underwood,
Acting Director, Compliance & Airworthiness Division, Aircraft
Certification Service.
[FR Doc. 2023-02782 Filed 2-9-23; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P


[Federal Register Volume 77, Number 57 (Friday, March 23, 2012)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 16925-16927]
[FR Doc No: 2012-6975]

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DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES

Food and Drug Administration

21 CFR Part 882

[Docket No. FDA-2012-M-0206]

Medical Devices; Neurological Devices; Classification of the Near
Infrared Brain Hematoma Detector

AGENCY: Food and Drug Administration, HHS.

ACTION: Final rule.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------

SUMMARY: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is classifying the Near
Infrared (NIR) Brain Hematoma Detector into class II (special
controls). The Agency is classifying the device into class II (special
controls) in order to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and
effectiveness of the device.

DATES: This rule is effective April 23, 2012. The classification is
applicable beginning December 13, 2011.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Daryl Kaufman, Center for Devices and
Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire
Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 2426, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

I. Background

    In accordance with section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(1)), devices that were not
in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976 (the date of enactment
of the Medical Device Amendments of 1976), generally referred to as
postamendments devices, are classified automatically by statute into
class III without any FDA rulemaking process. These devices remain in
class III and require premarket approval, unless and until the device
is classified or reclassified into class I or II, or FDA issues an
order finding the device to be substantially equivalent, in accordance
with section 513(i) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C.360c(i)), to a predicate
device that does not require premarket approval. The Agency determines
whether new devices are substantially equivalent to predicate devices
by means of premarket notification procedures in section 510(k) of the
FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and part 807 of the regulations (21 CFR
part 807).
    Section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act provides that any person who
submits a premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act
for a device that has not previously been classified may, within 30
days after receiving an order classifying the device into class III
under section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act, request FDA to classify the
device under the criteria set forth in section 513(a)(1) of the FD&C
Act. FDA will, within 60 days of receiving this request, classify the
device by written order. This classification will be the initial
classification of the device. Within 30 days after the issuance of an
order classifying the device, FDA must publish a notice in the Federal
Register announcing this classification.
    In accordance with section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act, FDA issued an
order on March 16, 2010, classifying the Infrascanner into class III,
because it was not substantially equivalent to a device that was
introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for
commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or a device which was
subsequently reclassified into class I or class II. On April 8, 2010,
InfraScan, Inc. submitted a petition requesting classification of the
Infrascanner Model 1000 under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act. The
manufacturer recommended that the device be classified into class II
(Ref. 1).
    In accordance with section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act, FDA reviewed
the petition in order to classify the device under the criteria for
classification set forth in section 513(a)(1) of the FD&C Act. FDA
classifies devices into class II if general controls by themselves are
insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and
effectiveness, but there is sufficient information to establish special
controls to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and
effectiveness of the device for its intended use. After review of the
information submitted in the petition, FDA determined that the device
can be classified into class II with the establishment of special
controls. FDA believes these special controls will provide reasonable
assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
    The device is assigned the generic name Near Infrared (NIR) Brain
Hematoma Detector, and it is identified as a noninvasive device that
employs near-infrared spectroscopy that is intended to be used to
evaluate suspected brain hematomas.
    FDA has identified the following risks to health associated with
this type of device and the measures required to mitigate these risks:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
            Identified risk                    Mitigation measures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Excessive laser power..................  Electrical safety and
                                          electromagnetic compatibility
                                          (EMC).
Interference with other devices........  Electrical safety and EMC.
                                         Labeling.
Unit (hardware) malfunction............  Performance testing
                                          (nonclinical and clinical).
                                         Software verification,
                                          validation, and hazard
                                          analysis.
Software malfunction...................  Software verification,
                                          validation, and hazard
                                          analysis.
Operator errors........................  Labeling.
                                         Training.
Incorrect result (false positive and     Labeling.
 negative).
Adverse tissue reaction................  Biocompatibility.
Battery failure (failure of device to    Labeling.
 operate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    FDA believes that the following special controls address these
risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and
effectiveness: (1) The sale, distribution, and use of this device are
restricted to prescription use in accordance with 21 CFR 801.109; (2)
The labeling must include specific instructions and the clinical
training needed for the safe use of this device; (3) Appropriate
analysis/testing should validate EMC, electrical safety, and battery
characteristics; (4) Performance data should validate accuracy and
precision and safety features; (5) Any elements of the device that may
contact the patient should be demonstrated to be biocompatible; and (6)
Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard analysis
should be performed. Therefore, on December 13, 2011, FDA issued an
order to the petitioner classifying the device into class II. FDA is
codifying the classification of the device by adding Sec.  882.1935.
    Following the effective date of this final classification rule, any
firm submitting a 510(k) premarket notification for an NIR Brain
Hematoma Detector will need to comply with the special controls named
in the regulation.
    Section 510(m) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may exempt a class
II device from the premarket notification requirements under section
510(k) of the FD&C Act, if FDA determines that premarket notification
is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and
effectiveness of the device. For this type of device, FDA has
determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide
reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
Therefore, this device type is not exempt from premarket notification
requirements. Persons who intend to market this type of device must
submit to FDA a premarket notification, prior to marketing the device,
which contains information about the NIR Brain Hematoma Detector they
intend to market.

II. Environmental Impact

    The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is
of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant
effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental
assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.

III. Analysis of Impacts

    FDA has examined the impacts of the final rule under Executive
Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5
U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L.
104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct Agencies to assess all
costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when
regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize
net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public
health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and
equity). The Agency believes that this final rule is not a significant
regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
    The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires Agencies to analyze
regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule
on small entities. Because reclassification of this device from class
III to class II will relieve manufacturers of the device of the cost of
complying with the premarket approval requirements of section 515 of
the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360e), and may permit small potential
competitors to enter the marketplace by lowering their costs, the
Agency certifies that the final rule will not have a significant
economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
    Section 202(a) of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires
that Agencies prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment
of anticipated costs and benefits, before proposing ``any rule that
includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by
State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the
private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for
inflation) in any one year.'' The current threshold after adjustment
for inflation is $136 million, using the most current (2010) Implicit
Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. FDA does not expect this
final rule to result in any 1-year expenditure that would meet or
exceed this amount.

IV. Federalism

    FDA has analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles
set forth in Executive Order 13132. Section 4(a) of the Executive order
requires Agencies to ``construe * * * a Federal statute to preempt
State law only where the statute contains an express preemption
provision or there is some other clear evidence that the Congress
intended preemption of State law, or where the exercise of State
authority conflicts with the exercise of Federal authority under the
Federal statute.'' Federal law includes an express preemption provision
that preempts certain State requirements ``different from or in
addition to'' certain Federal requirements applicable to devices. 21
U.S.C. 360k; see Medtronic, Inc., v. Lohr, 518 U.S. 470 (1996), and
Riegel v. Medtronic, Inc., 552 U.S. 312 (2008). The special controls
established by this final rule create ``requirements'' under 21 U.S.C.
360(k).

V. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995

    This final rule establishes special controls that refer to
currently approved collections of information found in other FDA
regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by
the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction
Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21
CFR part 807, subpart E regarding premarket notification submissions
have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120, and the
collections of information in 21 CFR part 801 regarding labeling have
been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.

VI. Reference

    The following reference has been placed on display in the Division
of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630
Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and may be seen by
interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday.

1. Petition from InfraScan, Inc., April 8, 2010.

List of Subjects in 21 CFR Part 882

    Medical devices, Neurological devices.

    Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under
authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part
882 is amended as follows:

PART 882--NEUROLOGICAL DEVICES

0
1. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 882 continues to read as
follows:

    Authority: 21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 371.

0
2. Section 882.1935 is added to subpart B to read as follows:

Sec.  882.1935  Near Infrared (NIR) Brain Hematoma Detector.

    (a) Identification. A Near Infrared (NIR) Brain Hematoma Detector
is a noninvasive device that employs near-infrared spectroscopy that is
intended to be used to evaluate suspected brain hematomas.
    (b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special
controls for this device are:
    (1) The sale, distribution, and use of this device are restricted
to prescription use in accordance with Sec.  801.109 of this chapter;
    (2) The labeling must include specific instructions and the
clinical training needed for the safe use of this device;
    (3) Appropriate analysis/testing should validate electromagnetic
compatibility (EMC), electrical safety, and battery characteristics;
    (4) Performance data should validate accuracy and precision and
safety features;
    (5) Any elements of the device that may contact the patient should
be demonstrated to be biocompatible; and,
    (6) Appropriate software verification, validation, and hazard
analysis should be performed.

    Dated: March 16, 2012.
Leslie Kux,
Acting Assistant Commissioner for Policy.
[FR Doc. 2012-6975 Filed 3-22-12; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4160-01-P


[Federal Register Volume 82, Number 192 (Thursday, October 5, 2017)]
[Notices]
[Pages 46579-46580]
[FR Doc No: 2017-21398]

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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION

[Investment Company Act Release No. 32845; File No. 812-14726]

Olden Lane Securities LLC and Olden Lane Trust; Notice of
Application

September 29, 2017.
AGENCY: Securities and Exchange Commission (``Commission'').

ACTION: Notice of an application for an order under section 12(d)(1)(J)
of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the ``Act'') for an exemption
from sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B), and (C) of the Act and under sections
6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and
(2) of the Act. The requested order would permit certain registered
unit investment trusts (``UITs'') to acquire shares of certain
registered open-end investment companies, registered closed-end
investment companies and registered UITs (collectively, the
``Underlying Funds'') that are within and outside the same group of
investment companies as the acquiring UITs, in excess of the limits in
section 12(d)(1) of the Act.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------

Applicants: Olden Lane Trust (the ``Trust''), a UIT that is registered
under the Act, and Olden Lane Securities (``Olden Lane''), a Delaware
limited liability company registered as a broker-dealer under the
Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the ``Exchange Act'').

Filing Dates: The application was filed on December 9, 2016 and amended
on April 10, 2017, July 25, 2017 and September 15, 2017.

Hearing or Notification of Hearing: An order granting the requested
relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing.
Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's
Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally
or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by
5:30 p.m. on October 24, 2017 and should be accompanied by proof of
service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or, for
lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to Rule 0-5 under the Act,
hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any
facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the
reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to
be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the
Commission's Secretary.

ADDRESSES: Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F
Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Olden Lane
Securities LLC and Olden Lane Trust, 200 Forrestal Road, Suite 3B,
Princeton, NJ 08540.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Andrea Ottomanelli Magovern, Acting
Branch Chief, at<PHONE_NUMBER> or Nadya Roytblat, Assistant Chief
Counsel, at<PHONE_NUMBER> (Division of Investment Management, Chief
Counsel's Office).

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: The following is a summary of the
application. The complete application may be obtained via the
Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an
applicant using the Company name box, at http://www.sec.gov/search/search.htm, or by calling<PHONE_NUMBER>.

Summary of the Application

    1. Applicants request an order to permit (a) a Series \1\ to
acquire shares of Underlying Funds \2\ in excess of the limits in
sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (C) of the Act and (b) the Underlying Funds
that are registered open-end investment companies, their principal
underwriters and any broker or dealer registered under the Exchange Act
to sell shares of the Underlying Funds to the Series in excess of the
limits in section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act.\3\ Applicants also request an
order of exemption under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act from the
prohibition on certain affiliated transactions in section 17(a) of the
Act to the extent necessary to permit the Underlying Funds to sell
their shares to, and redeem their shares from, the Series.\4\
Applicants state that such transactions will be consistent with the
policies of each Series and each Underlying Fund and with the general
purposes of the Act and will be based on the net asset values of the
Underlying Funds.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    \1\ Applicants request that the order apply to each existing and
future series of the Trust and to any future registered UIT and
series thereof sponsored by Olden Lane or an entity controlling,
controlled by or under common control with Olden Lane (the
``Series'').
    \2\ Certain of the Underlying Funds may be registered as an
open-end investment company or a UIT, but have received exemptive
relief from the Commission to permit their shares to be listed and
traded on a national securities exchange at negotiated prices and to
operate as exchange-traded funds (``ETFs'').
    \3\ Applicants do not request relief for the Series to invest in
reliance on the order in closed-end investment companies that are
not listed and traded on a national securities exchange.
    \4\ A Series generally would purchase and sell shares of an
Underlying Fund that operates as an ETF through secondary market
transactions rather than through principal transactions with the
Underlying Fund. Applicants nevertheless request relief from section
17(a) to permit a Series to purchase or redeem shares from the ETF.
A Series will purchase and sell shares of an Underlying Fund that is
a closed-end fund through secondary market transactions at market
prices rather than through principal transactions with the closed-
end fund. Accordingly, applicants are not requesting section 17(a)
relief with respect to transactions in shares of closed-end funds.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

    2. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief
will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application.
Such terms and conditions are designed to, among other things, help
prevent any potential (i) undue influence over an Underlying Fund that
is not in the same ``group of investment companies'' as the UIT through
control or voting power, or in connection with certain services,
transactions, and underwritings, (ii) excessive layering of fees, and
(iii) overly complex fund structures, which are the concerns underlying
the limits in sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B), and (C) of the Act.
    3. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may
exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of
persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section
12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and
the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the
Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise
prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the
proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve
overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed
transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered
investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is
consistent with the general purposes of the Act.

Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or
transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is
necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the
protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy
and provisions of the Act.

    For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management,
pursuant to delegated authority.
Eduardo A. Aleman,
Assistant Secretary.
[FR Doc. 2017-21398 Filed 10-4-17; 8:45 am]
 BILLING CODE 8011-01-P


[Federal Register Volume 82, Number 161 (Tuesday, August 22, 2017)]
[Notices]
[Pages 39880-39881]
[FR Doc No: 2017-17749]

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DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY

Coast Guard

[Docket No. USCG-2017-0734]

Navigation Safety Advisory Council; Vacancies

AGENCY: U.S. Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.

ACTION: Request for applications.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------

SUMMARY: The U. S. Coast Guard seeks applications for membership on the
Navigation Safety Advisory Council.
    The Navigation Safety Advisory Council provides advice and
recommendations to the Secretary of Homeland Security, through the
Commandant of the U.S. Coast Guard, on matters relating to maritime
collisions, rammings, and groundings; Inland Rules of the Road;
International Rules of the Road; navigation regulations and equipment,
routing measures, marine information, diving safety, and aids to
navigation systems.

DATES: Completed applications should be submitted to the U. S. Coast
Guard on or before October 23, 2017.

ADDRESSES: Applicants should send a cover letter expressing interest in
an appointment to the Navigation Safety Advisory Council that also
identifies which membership category the applicant is applying under,
along with a resume detailing the applicant's experience via one of the
following methods:
     By Email<EMAIL_ADDRESS>Subject line: The
Navigation Safety Advisory Council;
     By Fax:<PHONE_NUMBER> ATTN: Mr. George Detweiler, Alternate
Designated Federal Officer; or
     By Mail: Commandant (CG-NAV-2)/NAVSAC Attn: Mr. George
Detweiler, Alternate Designated Federal Officer, Commandant (CG-NAV-2),
U.S. Coast Guard 2703 Martin Luther King Avenue SE., STOP 7418,
Washington, DC 20593-7418

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Mr. George Detweiler, Alternate
Designated Federal Officer of the Navigation Safety Advisory Council;
202-372-1566 or email at<EMAIL_ADDRESS>
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: The Navigation Safety Advisory Council is a
federal advisory committee authorized by 33 U.S.C. 2073 and chartered
under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, (Title 5,
U.S.C., Appendix).
    The Navigation Safety Advisory Council provides advice and
recommendations to the Secretary, through the Commandant of the U.S.
Coast Guard, on matters relating to maritime collisions, rammings, and
groundings; Inland Rules of the Road; International Rules of the Road;
navigation regulations and equipment, routing measures, marine
information, diving safety, and aids to navigation systems.
    The Navigation Safety Advisory Council normally meets twice a year.
All members serve at their own expense and receive no salary or other

compensation from the Federal Government. The only exception to this
policy is when attending the Navigation Safety Advisory Council
meetings; members may be reimbursed for travel and expenses and
provided per diem in accordance with Federal Travel Regulations.
    The Coast Guard will consider applications for seven positions that
will be vacant on November 4, 2017, in the following membership
categories only:
    a. Commercial vessel owners and operators;
    b. Professional mariners;
    c. Recreational boaters;
    d. The recreational boating industry; and
    e. The Maritime Law Association.
    Each member will be appointed to represent the viewpoints and
interests of one of the groups or organizations, and at least one
member will be appointed to represent each membership category. All
members serve as representatives and are not Special Government
Employees as defined in Section 202(a), Title 18, U.S.C.
    To be eligible, you should have experience in one of the categories
listed above. Members serve terms of office of up to three (3) years.
Members may be considered to serve up to two (2) consecutive terms. In
the event the Navigation Safety Advisory Council terminates, all
appointments to the Council terminate.
    The Department of Homeland Security does not discriminate in
selection of Council members on the basis of race, color, religion,
sex, national origin, political affiliation, sexual orientation, gender
identity, marital status, disabilities and genetic information, age,
membership in an employee organization, or any other non-merit factor.
The Department of Homeland Security strives to achieve a widely diverse
candidate pool for all of its recruitment actions.
    If you are interested in applying to become a member of the
Council, send your cover letter and resume to
    Mr. George Detweiler, the Navigation Safety Advisory Council,
Alternate Designated Federal Officer via one of
    the transmittal methods in the ADDRESSES section by the deadline in
the DATES section of this notice. All email submittals will receive
email receipt confirmation.

    Dated: August 16, 2017.
Michael D. Emerson,
Director, Marine Transportation Systems.
[FR Doc. 2017-17749 Filed 8-21-17; 8:45 am]
 BILLING CODE 9110-04-P


[Federal Register Volume 86, Number 73 (Monday, April 19, 2021)]
[Notices]
[Pages 20384-20385]
[FR Doc No: 2021-07918]

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DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY

Federal Emergency Management Agency

[Internal Agency Docket No. FEMA-4515-DR; Docket ID FEMA-2021-0001]

Indiana; Amendment No. 3 to Notice of a Major Disaster
Declaration

AGENCY: Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.

ACTION: Notice.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------

SUMMARY: This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration
for the State of Indiana (FEMA-4515-DR), dated April 3, 2020, and
related determinations.

DATES: This amendment was issued February 2, 2021.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Dean Webster, Office of Response and
Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW,
Washington, DC 20472,<PHONE_NUMBER>.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the
President's Memorandum to Extend Federal Support to Governors' Use of
the National Guard to Respond to COVID-19 and to Increase

Reimbursement and Other Assistance Provided to States, dated January
21, 2021 and the President's Memorandum on Maximizing Assistance from
the Federal Emergency Management Agency, dated February 2, 2021 FEMA is
amending the cost-sharing arrangements regarding Federal funds provided
under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and
Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121-5207 (the ``Stafford Act'')
for all of the COVID-19 emergency and major disaster declarations. FEMA
is amending this declaration as follows:

    Federal funds for emergency protective measures (Category B),
including direct Federal assistance, under the Public Assistance
program (Section 403) are authorized at 100 percent of total
eligible costs for work performed from January 20, 2020 through
September 30, 2021.

(The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA)
are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community
Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling;
97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment
Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048,
Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In
Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially
Declared Disaster Assistance--Disaster Housing Operations for
Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster
Assistance to Individuals and Households--Other Needs; 97.036,
Disaster Grants--Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared
Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.)

Robert J. Fenton,
Senior Official Performing the Duties of the Administrator, Federal
Emergency Management Agency.
[FR Doc. 2021-07918 Filed 4-16-21; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 9111-23-P