Greetings dear aspirants, as a part of target 2020 prelim series, this video consists of a set of 50 important topics which are sourced from various sources like the Hindu, the business standard, live mint and from various government sources like the Press Information Bureau, Neethi Ayog, Ministry websites, then from eGazette etc. These are the list of topics chosen for the month of July 2019. These topics represent the current affairs of the month of July 2019. We have chosen these 50 topics and presented in MCQ format along with necessary information that is required to be known from UPSC prelims exam perspective. The PDF link of today's discussion is given in the description box in the best interest of the viewers. Now let us begin with the session. This question is about BeamStack, two statements are given and you need to choose the correct answer. Let us look at BeamStack, BeamStack stands for Bay of Bengal initiative for multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation. See it is a regional organization that comprises of 7 member states which are lying in the littoral and the adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal. This sub regional organization came into being on 6th of June 1997 through the Bangkok declaration. It consists of 7 member states, 5 are from South Asia, this includes the countries of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal and Sri Lanka and 2 countries from Southeast Asia which includes Myanmar and Thailand. Initially if you see this economic block was formed with 4 member states with the acronym BISTEC. It consisted of Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand and Myanmar was included in the same year later then this group was renamed to BeamStack. That is Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand economic cooperation. Later in 2004 if you see Nepal and Bhutan joined this group and after that this group was renamed as Bay of Bengal initiative for multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation. See it is a sector driven cooperative organization. Initially if you see it focus only on 6 sectors. This included trade, technology, energy, transport, tourism and fisheries. Later if you see in the year 2008 it expanded to 9 more sectors which includes agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, counter-terrorism, environment, culture, people to people contact and climate change. So this is all that you need to know about BeamStack in from prelims point of view. Now look at this question, look at the first statement it tells that BeamStack is a sub-regional organization which came into being through Bangkok declaration in the year 1997. Yes this statement is correct it came into being in 1997 through the Bangkok declaration. Now look at the second statement it tells that BeamStack constitutes 8 member states from south and south-east Asia. This statement is wrong because it is 7 member states. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar and Thailand. So the correct answer to this question is option A, 1-1-B. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about national anti-profit hearing authority. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. First let us look at about national anti-profit hearing authority. It is a body that has been constituted under section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act of 2017. If you see this body is provided with a mandate to ensure that whatever reduction in the rate of tax or whatever benefit that comes out of the input tax credit shall be passed on to the recipient that is to the consumers by a reduction in prices. So this is the actual mandate of this authority national anti-profit hearing authority. Now if you look at the first statement it tells that it is constituted with a mandate to ensure that the benefits of reduction in GST are ultimately passed on to consumers. Yes this statement is correct. Now the second statement tells that it is a permanent statutory body. Of course it is a statutory body as we just saw but is it permanent or a temporary body? See it is not a permanent body because as per the CGST rules of 2017 which were framed under this CGST Act of 2017 provides for the constitution of this national anti-profit hearing authority. See this authority is constituted with a sunset clause of two years that is it shall function only for two years. So initially it was from 2017 till 2019 then in the month of June 2019 it was further extended for two more years. So now this body will cease to exist by 2021 and this is the tenure is extended. So we can see that it is not a permanent statutory body. Of course it is a statutory body but not a permanent statutory body. So the second statement goes wrong. The correct answer to this question is option A one only since you need to choose the correct statements. Additionally know that this national anti-profit hearing authority functions under the department of revenue which in turn comes under the Ministry of Finance. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about North Eastern Council. First let us look at this North Eastern Council. See it is a statutory body which is constituted as per the provisions of North Eastern Council Act of 1971. The objectives or functions of this North Eastern Council are to secure balanced and coordinated development of the North Eastern States and facilitating coordination with the states. Next to function as a regional planning body for the North Eastern area and finally to give priority to the schemes and projects benefitting two or more North Eastern States. Now coming to the membership of the council. See as per the provisions of the North Eastern Council Act of 1971 the president can nominate any union minister as a member of the council. Three such members are to be nominated by the president. Apart from this if you see the governors and the chief ministers of all the eight North Eastern States are its members. And apart from this the minister of state in charge of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region is an ex-officio member. So the members include governors and chief ministers of all the eight North Eastern States plus three members nominated by the president and the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region. The union minister of OMHFERS is the ex-officio chairperson of the North Eastern Council. And the minister of state who is in charge of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region will serve as the vice chairman of this council. So this is all about the membership and the chair and vice chair of this council. Now with this information in mind let us look at this question. Three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. Look at the first statement. It tells that North Eastern Council is an apex level body constituted for securing balanced and coordinated development of North Eastern States. Yes this statement is correct. Look at the second statement. It tells that the North Eastern Council was established under the North Eastern Council Act of 1971. This statement is also correct. Look at the third statement. It tells that the North Eastern Council functions under the chairmanship of Minister of State of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region. We just saw that the union minister of OMHFERS is the ex-officio chairperson of this North Eastern Council. So the third statement goes wrong. So the correct answer to this question is option A one and two only. Now as we are talking about this North Eastern Council, it is also important to know about Zonal Councils. See the North Eastern Council is different from the Zonal Councils. Why because if you see Zonal Councils are constituted under the State's Reorganization Act of 1956. Whereas we saw that the North Eastern Council has been formed as per the provisions of North Eastern Council Act of 1971. Now if you look at the objective of these Zonal Councils, it is to develop the habit of cooperative working among the states. Currently there are five Zonal Councils, which are Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern. The North Eastern States, that is the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya and Nagaland, are not included in the Zonal Councils. And their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council. If you see the State of Sikkim was included in the North Eastern Council after the North Eastern Council Amendment Act of 2002. So all these eight states are not a part of any Zonal Council. Remember this fact, this is all about North Eastern Councils and Zonal Councils. Now let us move on to the next question. See this question is about one nation, one ration card scheme. See UPSC frequently asks questions on various schemes and missions. This question is relevant as India is heading for a nationwide ration card portability in this year. Similarly, there are some schemes which we are going to see in this month's current affairs and also in the subsequent month's current affairs. So the aspirants are expected to know the objectives of the important schemes and the implementing agencies from UPSC prelims point of view. So always have this in mind. Now let us look at this one nation, one ration card scheme. See this scheme is mandated to provide nationwide ration card portability. It means the beneficiaries can lift their subsidized grains from any public distribution system store, that is the PDS store in India. Know that under National Food Security Act of 2013, every eligible beneficiary is entitled to receive 5 kgs of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices. Now if you see this scheme mainly helps the migrant workers. Now there will be an all India portability under this scheme. So the migrant worker can collect is or her share of grains in the state he or she is residing. And the workers family can collect their share of grains in the home state. This scheme proposes the usage of point of sale machines and the ration cards will be linked to other. So through other linking and usage of internet connected POS machines, the corruption and the pulverages in the public distribution system can be eliminated. Now it is very important to know who implements the scheme. Know that the scheme is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Currently if you see there are 10 plus states which offer ration card portability. This is all about this scheme in brief. Now based on this information, let us try to solve this question. Three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. Look at the first statement. It tells that the objective of the scheme is to introduce nationwide portability of ration card holders under the National Food Security Act of 2013. Yes this statement is correct. Now look at the second statement. It tells that to eliminate corruption, migrant workers are excluded from the scheme. This statement is wrong. The scheme is mainly expected to benefit the migrant workers because of nationwide ration card portability. So the second statement is wrong. Now if the second statement is wrong, you can easily arrive at the answer which is option C 1 and 3 only. As we saw the scheme is implemented by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. So the correct answer here is option C 1 and 3 only. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about a multilateral instrument which is named as Hague Code of Conduct. First let us look at about this Hague Code of Conduct. See it is an international code of conduct against ballistic missile proliferation. It consists of a set of principles, commitments and limited confidence building measures. The main aim is to promote disarmament on an international basis. So it is a sum of international efforts put forward to control the access to ballistic missiles. Because these ballistic missiles can be a major reason for mass destruction across the world. See this multilateral code of conduct was adopted in the year 2002. Kindly note that it does not ban the ballistic missiles. It only limits the production testing and export. And along with the missile technology control regime that is MTCR, this Hague Code of Conduct is the only multilateral transparency and confidence building measure concerning the spread of ballistic missiles. We shall see about this missile technology control regime. In our next question, see India has joined this Hague Code of Conduct in 2016. If you see as on February 2020, there are 143 signatories to this Hague Code of Conduct. And also note that the neighboring countries like Pakistan, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar and China are not the signatories. The annual meeting of this Hague Code of Conduct are usually held at Vienna in Austria. The 18th annual meeting took place in the month of June 2019 under the chairmanship of Norway. This is all about Hague Code of Conduct that you need to know. Now look at this question, two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement, it tells that Hague Code of Conduct is an international code of conduct to prohibit the usage of biological weapons by the member countries. This statement is wrong. The main aim is to control the access to ballistic missiles. It aims to limit the production testing and export of ballistic missiles. So the first statement is wrong. Now look at the second statement, it tells that India has joined the Hague Code of Conduct in 2016. Yes, this statement is correct. So the correct answer here is option B, two only. Now let us move on to the next question which is about missile technology control regime. Before looking at this question, let us look at about the missile technology control regime. See, it is an informal political understanding among the states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. See this MTCR was formed in the year 1987 by the G7 industrialized countries, which are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States. There are currently 35 countries that are members of this MTCR. See this MTCR is not a treaty and it does not impose any legally binding obligations on the members. Rather, it is an informal political understanding among the states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. Basically, it is a multilateral export control regime. Later in 1992, if you see, the focus was extended to focus on the proliferation of missiles for the delivery of all types of weapons of mass destruction, that is nuclear, chemical and biological weapons. This MTCR identified that such proliferation are threat to international peace and security. So the main aim is to limit the proliferation of missile and other unmanned delivery systems that could be used for chemical or nuclear attacks. See India became a member of this MTCR in the year 2016 along with the Hague Code of Conduct. Know that this MTCR does not have an observer status to any countries. Here just have an idea that initially India joined the Hague Code of Conduct. Later India became a member of this missile technology control regime. And know that MTCR does not have an observer status to any of the countries. This is all about the missile technology control regime. Now look at this question, which of the following statements with reference to missile technology control regime is correct? Here the correct answer is option A, it aims to limit the proliferation of missile and missile technology. So the correct answer here is option A, here note that there is no formal linkage between this missile technology control regime and the United Nations. However, if you see the activities of this MTCR are consistent with the United Nations non-proliferation and export control efforts. Next question is about petroglyphs. This question assumes significance because there was a recent discovery of petroglyphs along the Konkan coast in the month of July 2019. Now let us see what do we mean by petroglyph? See a petroglyph is a form of rock art. Usually if you see rock art includes pictographs that is the paintings on rocks and the petroglyphs. So petroglyph is basically a prehistoric carving on a rock. Which are consists of images that are created by removing a part of the rock surface through various methods like incising that is cutting or maybe through picking or maybe through carving or even maybe through upgrading that is to scrape or wear away by friction or erosion. So these are some of the methods through which the rock surface was removed and how we have petroglyphs now. Now these petroglyphs are important because they are the remains of the prehistory. When we tell prehistory we refer to the period of time before civilization and writing. And these petroglyphs are the only archeological sources that are available for the prehistoric period and along with petroglyphs we also have stones and bone tools some of the rock arts to have an idea about the prehistoric period. Now if you see there was a recent discovery along the Konkan coast of Maharashtra more than 1000 rock carvings were found by the archeologists in areas like Ratnagiri and Rajapur in the state of Maharashtra. The findings of these petroglyphs can fill a huge gap in the history of this Konkan region. Now when we tell Konkan coast it is a rugged section of the western coastline which includes the states of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. Geographically if you see the stretch of land from the Damanganga river in the north to the Gangavalli river in the south is referred to as the Konkan coast. So we have western guards to the east, Arabian sea to the west, Damanganga river to the north and Gangavalli river to the south. So just have an idea about Konkan coast. This is all about the discussion of petroglyphs. Now let us look at this question two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement it tells that petroglyphs are images created by removing part of a rock surface by incising, peaking, carving or upgrading as a form of rock art. Yes this statement is correct. Now look at the second statement it tells that they were recently found in Ratnagiri along the Konkan coast. Yes this statement is also correct. So the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about the protection of Human Rights Amendment Act of 2019. Know that this act amended the protection of Human Rights Act of 1993. Now let us understand some of the important changes made in this 2019 amendment. First is related to the composition of the National Human Rights Commission. See the 1993 act said that the chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of India. Now as per this 2019 amendment the chairperson can be a former Chief Justice of India or a former judge of the Supreme Court. Then if you see the 1993 act provides for appointment of two persons with knowledge in the field of Human Rights as members of the National Human Rights Commission. Now there can be three such members at least one of them being a woman. If you see the 1993 act provided for four ex-officer members the chairperson of the National Commission of Minorities number one, number two the National Commission for Schedule Castes, number three the National Commission for Schedule Tribes and number four the National Commission for Women. Now this 2019 amendment act has also included the chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes then the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights and number three the Chief Commissioner for the Persons with Disabilities as members of this National Human Rights Commission. So as per this 2019 amendment act there are seven ex-officer members. The next amendment is related to the chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission. See under the 1993 act the chairperson of State Human Rights Commission should be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court. Now a person who has been a Chief Justice or a former judge of a High Court is eligible to become a chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission. So this is yet another amendment. The next amendment is related to the term of office. See as per the 1993 act the chairperson and the members of the National Human Rights Commission and the State Human Rights Commission are supposed to hold office for a period of five years or till the age of 70 years whichever is earlier. Now as per this 2019 amendment this term of five years is revised to three years or till the age of 70 years whichever is earlier. Next the amendment is regarding the reappointment of chairpersons and the members of National Human Rights Commission and the State Human Rights Commission. See in the 1993 act there was no mention of reappointment of chairpersons. But as per this 2019 amendment act the chairperson is eligible for reappointment. Whereas if you see for the members of National Human Rights Commission and the State Human Rights Commission as per the 1993 act the members were eligible for reappointment for another term of five years. Now this term for another term of five years is removed. So as of now as per this 2019 amendment act they are eligible for reappointment but the time period is not mentioned. Also here you need to know that after the tenure the chairperson and the members are not eligible for further employment under the state or the central government. So with regards to chairperson he or she is eligible for reappointment and with regards to members the term of five years has been removed. They are also eligible for reappointment. The next amendment is related to the powers of secretary general. See as per the 1993 act the secretary general of the National Human Rights Commission and the secretary of the State Human Rights Commission were exercising only those powers that were delegated to them. Now the secretary general and the secretary can exercise all administrative and financial powers except judicial functions subject to the respective chairperson's control. So the powers of the secretary general has been enhanced. The next amendment is regarding the union territories. The 2019 amendment act says that the center may confer on a state human rights commission some of the human rights functions that are being discharged by the union territories. Then it also says that the functions relating to human rights in case of Delhi will be dealt with by the National Human Rights Commission. So these are some of the major amendments made to the 1993 protection of human rights act. Now with this information in mind let us look at this question two statements are given and you need to choose the incorrect statements. Now look at this first statement it tells that the amendment act enable the central government to determine the term of chairperson and the members of the National Human Rights Commission. This statement is wrong as per this amendment the term of office has been reduced from five years to three years. So it is actually this act which mandates the term of office it is not the central government. So the first statement goes wrong. Now look at the second statement. This statement tells that the amendment act included the chief commissioner for persons with disabilities as one of the ex official members of the National Human Rights Commission. Yes this statement is correct initially there were four ex official members who were the chairperson of the National Commission of Minorities then the National Commission for Schedule Casts then the National Commission for Schedule Tribes and the National Commission for Women. Now it also includes three more persons as ex official members of this National Human Rights Commission. They are the chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes then the chairperson for the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights and then the chief commissioner for persons with disabilities. So as of now there are seven ex official members. So the second statement is correct here. Now we need to choose the incorrect statement or statements. Since the first statement is incorrect the correct answer here is option one only. This question is about Senkaku Islands. The question is Senkaku Islands a contested or a disputed territory of Japan is located in Sea of Japan, Philippine Sea, Sea of Okhotsk or East China Sea. See Senkaku Islands is a contested territory between three countries Japan, China and Taiwan. It is referred to as Senkaku Islands by the Japanese whereas the Chinese call it as the Oyu Islands. These islands are located in the East China Sea between Japan, China and Taiwan as you can see in this picture. Since 1895 these islands have been controlled by Japan. Briefly between 1945 and 1972 these islands were under the control of USA later Japan took the control. See only after the year 1968 China started claiming the Senkaku Islands when it was found that there are oil reserves in these islands. See this territory is also close to the key shipping lanes and rich fishing grounds. So these islands assume a lot of significance for both Japan and China as they are the regional leaders. From this map you can see that these islands are located east to the mainland China in the East China Sea. So the correct answer here is option D East China Sea. Now don't confuse Senkaku with the Kuril Islands. The Kuril Island dispute is between Japan and Russia. These islands separate Sea of Okhotsk from the Pacific Ocean. So the correct answer to this question is option D East China Sea. Now let us move on to the next question. See this question is framed based on Ula's river. The question is which of the following rivers are West flowing rivers. Four rivers are given and you need to choose the correct rivers. See in India the rivers are broadly classified into East flowing and West flowing rivers. The East flowing rivers join the Bay of Bengal or it joins the important rivers that drain into Bay of Bengal. And the West flowing rivers join the Arabian Sea or those important rivers that drain into Arabian Sea. Here know that Ula's and Daman Ganga are West flowing rivers. Let us look at about Ula's river. Why it was in news because there was overflowing of Ula's river due to heavy rainfall which led to floods in Mumbai. Know that this river flows across Maharashtra and drains into Arabian Sea. Next if you look at Daman Ganga river, this river originates in the Nasik district of Maharashtra. It flows through Maharashtra, Gujarat and the Union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Damanandayu. This Daman Ganga river is also called as Davan River. So here Ula's and Daman Ganga are West flowing rivers. The correct answer here is option B 1 and 3 only. Now let us also look in brief about Bhima river and Ib river. See both these are East flowing rivers. Bhima is a tributary of Krishna river. It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana. If you see the other important tributaries of river Krishna are Gataprabha, Malaprabha, Thungabhadra, Moosi and Munneru. Next if you look at Ib river, it is a tributary of Mahanadi river. It flows through the states of Chattisgarh and Odisha. So here the correct answer is option B 1 and 3, Ula's and Daman Ganga. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is in the form of match the following. You need to find the correctly matched pairs. Reports are given and who publishes these reports are also given. See UPSC frequently asks for various international and domestic reports that are published by Indian government and few other important international organizations. So it is expected to remember at least few important reports that are published by reputed organizations like World Bank, International Monetary Fund, The Nation Development Bank, then the United Nations, United Nations Development Program, then United Nations Environment Program etc. Now if you see in this question all the reports are correctly matched, World Population Prospects is published by United Nations to be specific by the population division of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs. Next if you see Global Economic Prospects is published by World Bank. It presents the state of the world economy. This is published every year. Next if you see the World Economic Outlook is published by the International Monetary Fund that is IMF. It gives projections about the global economic activity. So all the reports and the organizations that publishes these reports are correctly matched. So the correct answer here is option D 1, 2 and 3. We have also given a list of few other important reports and the organizations which releases these reports. There are many reports. Try to compile the reports organization-wise and keep revising them as and when you feel necessary. See now these are some of the questions which were asked in the previous year UPC Prilams examination. Just have a look. The in-depth understanding of the report is not required. Try to remember the report names and the publishing agencies. That is more than sufficient from UPC Prilams. The exception was in the year 2019 when UPC asked about the indicators in calculating the ease of doing business index. Because if you see the Indian government was referring to the ease of doing business often in all its reports. So sometimes you do get such questions where you also need to know about the important indicators and important findings of some of the important indices. But on a general just try to know who publishes the reports. That is more than sufficient from Prilams point of view. Now let us move on to the next question. This is yet another question on report. The question is which of the following organization brings out the report known as Global Financial Stability Report. See this Global Financial Stability Report is a semi-annual report that is published by the International Monetary Fund. It means that this report is released twice every year in the months of April and October. This report basically assesses the stability of global financial markets and the emerging market financing. Also if you see it focuses on current market conditions highlighting the systemic issue that could pose a risk to the financial stability of the markets across the world. If you see this report draws out some of the financial ramifications of economic imbalances that are highlighted by IMF's another report which is called as World Economic Outlook which we just saw in the previous question. If you see this World Economic Outlook is also usually released twice in a year. It provides analysis and forecasts of economic developments and policies in its member countries. So here the correct answer to this question is option B International Monetary Fund. As we told earlier always try to know some of the important international organizations like International Monetary Fund, World Bank, etc. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about an umbrella scheme of the government which is called as Green Revolution Krishna Nathiyo Jhana. Three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. First let us look at this scheme. See this scheme was introduced in the year 2005 in order to boost the agriculture sector. This scheme is under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It is basically an umbrella scheme which has 12 sub-schemes that are mentioned here for your reference. So all these schemes are either central sector or centrally sponsored schemes or missions. Recently if you see this umbrella scheme was approved beyond the 12th five-year plan for three-year period from financial year 2017-18 till the financial year 2019-20. Through this scheme the government also plans to develop the agriculture and allied sector in a holistic and scientific manner in order to increase the income of a farmer. And also if you see this scheme looks to enhance the agricultural productivity and better returns on produce. Now what are the benefits of this Krishna Nathiyo Jhana? This will help achieve food security in the nation by providing impetus to the production of rice, wheat, pulses and coarse grains. Also if you see the scheme through its various missions will help realize the government's mission of doubling farmers income by the year 2022. So this is all that you need to know about this umbrella scheme in brief. With this background idea in mind now let us approach this question. Three statements are given. Look at the first statement. It tells that this green revolution Krishna Nathiyo Jhana is an umbrella scheme comprising both central sector as well as centrally sponsored schemes or missions. Yes this statement is correct. It comprises of around 12 central sector or centrally sponsored schemes and missions. Now look at the second statement. It tells that the scheme aims to enhance the agricultural production and productivity. Yes this statement is also correct. The scheme looks to enhance the agricultural production, productivity and better returns for the produce. The main aim is to increase the income of the farmers. So the first statement is correct and the second statement is also correct. Now look at the third statement. It tells that the scheme comes under the Ministry of Rural Development. It is wrong. The scheme comes under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. So the correct answer to this question is option A, 1 and 2 only since you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about invasive plant species. Four species are given and you need to choose the correct invasive plant species. See this question is based on your understanding of plant diversity. Know that invasive species threaten the native plants and native animals or other aspects of biodiversity. That is why they are named as invasive species. Four plant species are given here. Bedomas, cycad, Lantana camera, Sena spectabilis, Aldrovanda. First let us see about Bedomas, cycad. See it is a medicinal plant and it is not an invasive species. This plant species is used to cure arthritis and muscle pains. Next let us look at about Lantana camera. Lantana camera is an invasive species which is present all over India. Next if you see Sena spectabilis it is also an invasive species. This species was recently seen in the news. See this species is prevalent in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Why it is in news because this species colonizes much of this Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. So the Kerala government is taking measures to control the expanse of this Sena spectabilis invasive species. The final species given in the question is Aldrovanda. Know that Aldrovanda is neither medicinal nor invasive. It is an insectivorous plant. It is basically a free-floating rootless aquatic plant which is present in the Sundarbans. So out of these four Lantana camera and Sena spectabilis are the invasive species. So the correct answer here is option A 213 only. India as parents we request you to refer to Shankar IAS Academy's environment book to have a detailed understanding of plant diversity of India. And if possible glance through the plant species that are displayed in the book especially the invasive plant species. If you remember there was a previous year UPSC prelims question about an invasive species called as prosopsis juliflora. It was asked in 2018 UPSC prelims. So sometimes you do get questions on invasive species. So try to remember the major invasive plant species. Now let us move on to the next question. Now this question is about national policy on electronics 2019. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Now let us look at about this national policy on electronics 2019 in detail. See this policy replaces the national policy on electronics 2012. If you see this 2012 policy laid the foundation of electronic system design and manufacturing industry which is in short called as ESDM industry. Now this 2019 policy will build up on this 2012 policy. The first and foremost objective of this 2019 policy is to make India a global hub for electronic system design and manufacturing. It will be done by encouraging developing core components including chip sets and creating an enabling environment for the electronic industry to make it globally competitive. If you see this policy has been proposed by the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and the latest current affairs is that on 19 February 2019, the union cabinet has approved the proposal of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology which is nothing but the national policy on electronics 2019. Now let us discuss the silent features of this 2019 national policy on electronics. See this policy aims to give incentives and support for manufacturing of core electronic components for mega projects such as semiconductor facilities and display fabrication. Then it also speaks about creating a state led sovereign patent fund to promote the development and acquisition of intellectual properties in the ESDM sector. Another feature is to promote industry led research and development and innovation in all sub sectors of electronics in areas such as 5G, then internet of things, then artificial intelligence, then virtual reality, then drones, robotics, etc. Then this policy also gives special focus to the fabulous chip design industry, then to medical electronic devices industry, then to automotive electronics industry, and also to power electronics for mobility, etc. Another important feature is to promote trusted electronics value chain initiatives to improve national cybersecurity profile. So the supply chain across national defense which includes military, intelligence, space and then critical national infrastructure such as energy grids, communication networks, digital economy, etc. will all be controlled. Then if you see this 2019 policy stresses on the need to address the cybersecurity issues and concerns pertaining to electronic products. It encourages use of IT products tested and evaluated for security. Then it also promotes the use of secure chips to reduce cybersecurity risks and this policy also encourages a startup ecosystem for development of cybersecurity products. So this policy has addressed the cybersecurity issues and concerns that are related to electronic products. So these are some of the selling features of this 2019 national policy on electronics. Now let us discuss the targets that is proposed in this 2019 policy. See this policy aims to achieve a turnover of 400 billion US dollars by the year 2025. Then it also targets a production of 1 billion mobile handsets by the year 2025. And this is valued at 190 billion US dollars. And this will include 60 crore mobile handsets which are intended for exports. Their value is approximately 110 billion US dollars. So these are some of the targets proposed in this 2019 national policy on electronics. This is all about the discussion. Now let us look at this question. Two statements are given. First statement speaks about the objective. The objective of the policy is to make India a global hub for electronic system design and manufacturing. Yes, this statement is correct. The 2012 national policy on electronics laid the foundation of electronic system design and manufacturing industry. And this 2019 policy builds up on this 2012 policy to make India as a global hub for electronic system design and manufacturing. Now look at the second statement. It tells that one of the selling features of this policy is to create sovereign patent fund to promote the development and acquisition of intellectual properties in ESDM sector. Yes, this sovereign patent fund concerns with this 2019 national policy on electronics. So this statement is also correct. So the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. Since you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about Changi 4 mission. Now let us look about this mission before seeing the question. See this Changi 4 mission is China's mission, which aims to explore the far side of the moon. That is the south pole of the moon. Know that this Changi 4 mission was launched on December 2018 on the Fond Karman crater in the Aitken vision at the moons south pole. See this Changi 4 mission has a lander and a rover called as U2-2. This mission aims to deliver the samples of moons, rock and soil to the earth. Now we have similar such mission in India, which is the Chandrayaan 2 mission. See it was launched by ISRO that is the Indian Space Research Organization. This mission also aim to explore the far side of the moon. That is the south pole of the moon. The plan was to land on a plain surface that covers the ground between two of the moon's craters. Simple is N and Manjinus C, which is located around 375 miles from the south pole of the moon. See this Chandrayaan 2 mission was launched on 22nd July 2019 using GSLV MK3. And this mission also has an orbiter, a lander named Vikram and a rover named Pragyan. But if you see only the orbiter mission is successful. Now why everyone is interested to study the south pole of the moon? It is because the lunar surface area that remains in the shadow is much larger than that at the north pole. And scientists believe that there could be a possibility of presence of water in the permanently shadowed areas around it. And in addition if you see the south pole region has craters that are cold traps and they might contain a fossil record of the early solar system. This is the reason why the scientists and the countries across the world are interested to explore moon's south pole. So remember Changi 4 mission is that of China's. Now let us look at this question. Three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. Look at the first statement. It tells that Changi 4 mission has a lander and a rover to explore the south pole of the moon. Yes this statement is correct. Now look at the second statement. It tells that the Changi 4 mission aims to deliver samples of moon's rock and soil to earth. Yes this statement is also correct. Now look at the third statement. It tells that the Changi 4 mission is a collaborative mission of European Space Agency in NASA. No it is wrong. It is China's mission. The Space Agency of China is called as China National Space Administration. So here only the first two statements are correct. The correct answer here is option A one and two only. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about NASA missions. To be specific about NASA's new frontiers program. Let us look at this program now. See the new frontiers program of NASA represents a critical step in the advancement of solar system exploration. Whatever missions that are in this program aims to understand the solar system and its evolution. NASA plans to explore planets like Venus, Jupiter and then the south polar region of Earth's moon including the Atkin basin. Then NASA also plans to explore Pluto and other quipper belt objects and comets. If you see this new frontiers program of NASA includes the following four missions. They are Dragonfly which is to study the Saturn's moon Titan. Next the new horizons mission to study the planet Pluto and quipper belt. Then we have the Juno mission to study the planet Jupiter and finally Osiris Rex to study the asteroid Beno. So here all the four pairs are correctly matched. The correct answer is option D one two three and four. This is all about the discussion of this new frontiers program of NASA. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about financial action task force. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. First let us look at about the context behind taking this topic. See the recent news is that in the meeting of this financial action task force Pakistan's gray listing has been extended till June 2020. And Pakistan has gone on the gray list at least twice just in the previous decade. The reason why Pakistan keeps entering the gray list is because of its failure to shut down all access to the funding of United Nations Security Council designated terrorist groups which includes Taliban, Al Qaeda, Luxury Taiba, Jaishi Mokhmat. See officially the financial action task force does not call using the names gray list and blacklist. If you see the gray list is a list that consists of the names of those countries that are publicly listed as having weak measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. The official name of this gray list is called as improving global anti money laundering and countering of terrorist financing compliance ongoing process. See if the countries that are listed in this document for review are not making any progress within a defined timeframe by the financial action task force then that country will be listed in another document which is officially called as the financial action task force's public statement. This lists the countries with serious long standing strategic deficiencies that have failed to make progress and this list is called as the blacklist. Now let us know some facts about financial action task force. See it is a global money laundering and a terrorist financing watchdog. It is basically an intergovernmental body which sets the international standards that aims to prevent the illegal activities and the harms that they cause to societies.  Also know that it is an initiative of G7 countries with headquarters at Paris the capital of France. See this financial action task force currently has 39 members. It comprises of 37 countries and two regional organizations which represent most major financial centers in all parts of the world. One is the European Commission and the next is the Gulf Cooperation Council. So what FADF does is it reviews money laundering and terrorist financing techniques and it continuously strengthens its standards to address new risks such as regulation of virtual assets which have spread as cryptocurrencies have gained popularity. Then if you see the financial action task force also monitors countries to ensure that they implement the standards of the financial action task force fully and effectively and it holds countries to account that do not comply. So this is the reason why Pakistan has been gray listed based on the assessment by financial action task force. This is all about the discussion of this topic. Now let us look at this question. Two statements are given. Look at the first statement. It tells that financial action task force is an intergovernmental organization formed in 1989 on the initiative of G7 countries. Yes this statement is correct. It was formed in the year 1989 which is an initiative of G7 countries. Now look at the second statement. It tells that this financial action task force aims to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. This statement is also correct. So the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. Now let us move on to the next question. See this question is about Global Findex Database. Which of the following organizations brings out the Global Findex Database? Know that this Global Findex Database is the world's most comprehensive data set on how adults save, borrow, make payments and manage risks. It was launched in the year 2011 by the World Bank with funding from the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation. Since 2011 it has been published every three years. If you see the data set is collected through nationally representative surveys of more than 150,000 adults in over 140 economies. Now why is such a kind of database is required? See financial services can help drive the development of an economy. They help people escape poverty by facilitating investments in their health, education and businesses. And they make it easier to manage financial emergencies such as during a job loss or during a crop failure that can push families into poverty. But if you see an estimated 1.7 billion adults who are living worldwide don't have a basic transaction account. And globally if you see two-thirds of adults without an account cite lack of money as a key reason. So all this shows that financial services are not yet affordable or they are not designed to fit the low income uses. Other barriers to opening an account include distance from a financial service provider that is a bank for example, then lack of necessary documentation papers and then a lack of trust in the financial service providers and so on. So know that this Global Findex database is released by the World Bank. The correct answer here is option C World Bank. The latest database was released in the year 2017. We can hope that our database will be released this year. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about Marpole Convention. First let us see about this convention and some other relevant international conventions to prevent marine pollution. See Marpole is the main international convention. That covers the prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational causes or accidental causes. This convention was adopted in the year 1973. Now why this convention was adopted? Because there were many tanker accidents which happened in the 1970s which pushed to have a consensus around the world to have a convention to prevent marine pollution. And thus the Marpole Convention was adopted in the year 1973. But if you see the protocol including the convention came into force only in the year 1983. And know that India is a signatory to Marpole. See after this convention was adopted in the year 1973. In 1982 the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea was established. Know that this convention which is in short called as UN clause demarcates the rights and usage limits of marine space to each country. And if you see it also protects the marine environment by directing the governing states to control the pollution to the ocean. And if you see it also puts restrictions on the amount of toxins and pollutants that come from all the ships internationally. So we have two conventions regarding prevention of marine pollution. One is Marpole and the other is the UN clause. Now with this information in mind look at this question. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement it tells that the international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships. Marpole Convention is mandated with the prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from both operational and accidental causes. Yes this statement is correct. Now look at the second statement it tells that India is a signatory to Marpole Convention. Yes India is a signatory to this Marpole Convention. Now since both the statements are correct the correct answer here is option C both 1 and 2. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is regarding artificial gravity. First we will see what do we mean by artificial gravity. See in space there is absence of gravity or microgravity. So this term artificial gravity refers to creating an artificial gravity in space. If you see the astronauts they are unable to walk and work in space like persons in earth. The main reason is there is no gravity. As a result they undergo muscle atrophy or muscle deterioration physiologically. And if you see the studies have shown that astronauts experience up to 20% loss of muscle mass on space flights which last for 5 to 11 days. So in such circumstances in order to combat the effects of muscle atrophy, the astronauts on the International Space Station spend two and a half hours every day in exercising. It is here the concept of artificial gravity could be helpful. See the scientists are now testing this concept by using the physics of centrifugal forces and also by using Newton's third law of motion. As of now if you see this concept is in testing stage. As per the recent developments in the International Space Station they will be using revolving or spinning mechanisms in future to create artificial gravity. Using the physics of centrifugal forces so that the astronauts can sit and do their work and they can run how we run on earth and they can do similar other things like how normal humans do on earth. So the initial efforts are to at least create artificial gravity to relax on space vehicles in space. And this is expected to significantly keep the astronauts healthy particularly from muscle deterioration or muscle atrophy. If this concept emerges successful so as to be used in space then the future space missions will be much healthier and the astronauts can spend more time in space. Now look at this question two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement it tells that artificial gravity is referred as a force that stimulates the effect of gravity in a spaceship. This statement is correct the simulation is experimented through the use of centrifuge to use the centrifugal force to create artificial gravity. Now look at the second statement it states that the only way to minimize muscle atrophy in space is through intensive exercise particularly strength training exercises combined with an adequate diet. Yes this statement is also correct this is what NASA states with respect to combating the muscle deterioration that astronauts undergo due to absence of gravity or microgravity. NASA tells that the astronauts experience bone loss, muscle loss, cardiovascular deconditioning in space. So here both the statements are correct the correct answer here is option C both 1 and 2. Now let us move on to the next question this question is about Atal Bhimith Vyakti Kalyan Yojana two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. First let us look at about this scheme see it is a welfare scheme which was launched by Employees State Insurance Corporation on 26 November 2018. Know that Employees State Insurance Corporation comes under the Ministry of Labor and Employment. See this scheme was made effective from 1st of July 2018 though it was launched on November 2018 and it was introduced on pilot basis for a period of two years. Under this scheme cash compensation is provided up to a period of 90 days for those persons who are being rendered unemployed and if you see the per day cash compensation shall not exceed 25 percentage of average earning per day of that individual during the previous four contribution periods in the two years immediately preceding to the claim of relief. Now let us look at the eligibility criteria in order to avail cash compensation under this scheme. See the insured person should have been rendered unemployed during the period when the relief is claimed and the employee should have completed two years of insurable employment immediately preceding to the claim of relief. Here insurable employment means an employment in a factory or establishment to which this ESA Act of 1948 is applicable. Next if you see this benefit of unemployment compensation is not applicable if the unemployment is caused as a result of any punishment for misconduct or superannuation or voluntary retirement. So these are some of the main eligibility criteria based on which a person can claim for cash compensation if he or she is rendered unemployed. This is all about this scheme. Now look at the question the first statement tells that this scheme offers financial support for the employees covered under the Employees State Insurance Act of 1948 nothing but the ESA Act of 1948 for being rendered unemployed. Yes this statement is correct. Now look at the second statement it tells that this Atal Bhimit Vyakti Kalyani Hojana was launched under the Ministry of Labor and Employment. This statement is also correct because the scheme was launched by the Employees State Insurance Corporation which comes under the Ministry of Labor and Employment. Since both the statements are correct the correct answer is option C both 1 and 2. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about blockchain technology. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Know that this term was in news in connection with virtual currencies or cryptocurrencies. See this blockchain technology as some silent features. One of the features is that there is a communally maintained database in which number of systems that use virtual currency software are connected. In these databases every bitcoin transaction will be stored. Now look at the first statement it mentions that blockchain technology is used to store transactions in bitcoin or other virtual currencies which is a correct statement. Now come to the second statement it states that every transaction would be tracked and recorded by the computers of all the people using bitcoins. Note that this statement is also correct. Here you need to know that each user of the bitcoin blockchain system could have one or more public bitcoin addresses and if you see these addresses are like bank account numbers and each of these addresses will have a private key. Unlike net banking enabled bank accounts the blockchain system facilitates in such a way that there is no need for a central authority that also knows the private key. Usually if you see these central authorities ensure that the user is entering the correct password or private key. So as a result this blockchain technology that is used for bitcoins is said as a financial network that could create and move money without a central authority. Only that concerned person will know that private key. So here the second statement is also correct. Every transaction would be tracked and recorded by the computers of all the people using bitcoins. Now we need to choose the correct statement or statements. Here the correct answer is option C both 1 and 2 because both the statements are correct. Now let us move on to the next question. See this question is with reference to the state butterflies. You need to choose the incorrect pairs. The state and the state butterflies are given. See in 2016 film examination there was a question on which state in India has become the first state to declare a particular butterfly as a state butterfly. Know that it is the state of Maharashtra which became the first state to declare a particular butterfly as a state butterfly. It was blue mormon butterfly. Subsequently if you see few states have also declared butterflies as state butterflies for better awareness on their importance in conservation. For example like states such as Uttarakhand, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Now in this question the states and the state butterflies are given and you need to choose the incorrect pairs. For this question if you know that blue mormon is the state butterfly of Maharashtra then you can eliminate option A 1 and 2 only because 3 is incorrectly matched. Next know that Karnataka has declared southern bird wing assets state butterfly and then Kerala has declared Malabar banded peacock assets state butterfly. Then if you see Uttarakhand has declared common peacock assets state butterfly and then Tamil Nadu declared Tamil yo man butterfly assets state butterfly. If you see this butterfly species in Maharashtra is called as Shaidri yo man. From this you can find that only Uttarakhand is correctly matched with its state butterfly. That is common peacock for Karnataka should have been southern bird wing whereas it is blue mormon here. So here the second and the third pair are incorrectly matched. The correct answer here is option B 2 and 3 only. Now what we have done is we have given you the habitat distribution of all these butterflies for your reference. Just have a look at it. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is with reference to population density. In this context it is important for us to know what is meant by population density. Then what is the population density in India as per the recent census which is census 2011. Then the maximum and minimum values of population density in states and union territories as per this 2011 census. First let us see what do we mean by population density. See it is defined as the number of persons per square kilometer. As per 2011 census the population density has gone up from 325 persons per square kilometer in 2001 to 382 persons per square kilometer in 2011. And know that the population density in the census year 1901 was 77 persons per square kilometer. So you can see that within a span of 100 years the population density has become more than 4 times the density which was in 1901. And as per 2011 census know that the state with the highest population density was Bihar where the density was 1002 persons per square kilometer. And among the union territories it was the national capital territory of Delhi which has the highest population density. The population density in Delhi is 11297 persons per square kilometer. And if you see the state with the lowest population density is the state of Arunachal Pradesh where the population density is 7 persons per square kilometer. Whereas in case of union territory it is Andaman and Nicobar islands where the population density is 46 persons per square kilometer. From this data we can understand that there is a wide variation in the population density among the states and union territories. This is because of many reasons like geography, climatic conditions, availability of resources etc. Now with this data in mind let us look at this question which is about population density. Look at the first statement. It tells that in India the population density was below 100 persons per square kilometer in the census year 1901 and is more than 300 persons per square kilometer by the census year 2011. Yes this statement is correct. We saw that in 1901 the population density was 77 persons per square kilometer. And by 2011 it is 382 persons per square kilometer. So you can see roughly there is an increase in population density by four times. Here the first statement is correct. Now look at the second statement. It tells that as per census 2011 the population density in the state of Arunachal Pradesh is the least in the country among the states. Yes this statement is also correct. The population density in the state of Arunachal Pradesh is the least in the country among the states where the population density is 17 persons per square kilometer. So here both the statements are correct. You need to choose the correct statement or statements. The correct answer here is option C both 1 and 2. This question is about global food print network. First let us look about this network. See this global food print network is an international non-profit organization which was founded in the year 2003. The vision of this network is to work for a future where all can live and thrive within the means of one planet which is Earth. See this vision is to be achieved by carrying out the mission to help ending the ecological overshoot. So the plan is to make ecological limits central to decision making process. One such ecological limit is ecological food print. Now let us see what do we mean by ecological food print. Simply we can say that it refers to the amount of biologically productive land and water that is required to produce all resources for the consumption of human activities and population. It also includes the biologically productive land and water that is required to absorb the waste generated by human population and activities. See this ecological food print is usually measured in global hectares. One implication of this definition is that the more the ecological food print the more challenging it becomes for the humans to the means of earth to survive. Now if you see this global food print network also carries out earth overshoot campaign. So what is this earth overshoot campaign? It is a campaign to move the date of earth overshoot day. See earth overshoot day is a day in a year when the ecological food print per person per year is greater than the global bio capacity per person per year. We can also say that earth overshoot day marks the date when humanity's demand for ecological resources and services in a given year exceeds what earth can regenerate in that year. In simple words it is the date when the demand exceeds regeneration. So this is all that you need to know about this global food print network. Now look at this question three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. Now look at the first statement it tells that this global food print network is an organization under United Nations Environment Program. We saw that it is an international non-profit organization. So the first statement goes wrong. Now if you are able to eliminate this first statement you can arrive at the answer which is two and three only. Now look at the second statement it tells that the vision of this global food print network is to enable a sustainable future where all people have opportunity to thrive within the means of one planet. Yes this is the vision of this global food print network. Now look at the third statement it tells that this global food print network promotes tools for advancing sustainability including ecological footprint and bio capacity. Yes this statement is also correct. So the correct answer to this question is option B two and three only. Now let us move on to the next question. See this question is about InSpaceX. See InSpaceX was the name given to India's first ever space exercise or space warfare exercise. It was carried out in the last week of July 2019. Earlier if you see in March 2019 India tested its anti-satellite capabilities through mission Shakti. Now let us see some of the objectives of this InSpaceX. One is to assess the military space assets of the United States, Russia and China. The second objective is to counter the growing influence of China and the space domain. The next objective is to prepare for future warfare as there is a realization that the next war India fights will include anti-satellite weapons as well. Then the next objective is to draft a joint space doctrine for future battles in outer space and yet another objective is to identify key challenges and shortfalls if a conflict escalates to space dimension. Now with this information in mind if you come back to the question you can easily find the answer which is option A. InSpaceX sometimes seen in news is a space warfare exercise by Indian armed forces. So the correct answer to this question is option A. Now if you look at option B it is given commercial space mission by Antrix. See know that Antrix Corporation Limited which is located in Bengaluru is a wholly owned government of India company under the administrative control of the department of space. This Antrix serves as one of the marketing arms of the Indian space research organization. In short ISRO for promotion and commercial exploitation of space products. In addition if you see this Antrix also acts as a marketing arm for the promotion and commercial exploitation of technical consultancy services and transfer of technologies that are developed by ISRO. The other commercial arm of ISRO with special emphasis on exploiting the research and development work of ISRO was inaugurated last year which is nothing but the new space India Limited. So this is about Antrix there is no such thing as commercial space mission by Antrix. Now if you look at option C it is given mission to study outer space region. InSpaceX is not a mission to study outer space region. Now look at option D mission to collect space debris. As of now India is not having any mission to collect the space debris. If you see European space agency has announced a mission which is called as clear space one. This clear space one mission will be the first space mission to remove debris from orbits around the earth. If you see this mission is scheduled for launch in the year 2025 which is five years ahead. So as of now there is no space mission to collect space debris. This is all about the discussion of this question. The correct answer is option A as we saw. Now look at this question three pairs are given borders and the countries and you need to choose the incorrect pair or pairs. See the first pair is the Durand line border and the country is given a Pakistan and Afghanistan. Yes this pair is correct Durand line is serving as border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. See this line was named after the British colonel Mortimer Durand who was credited with negotiating a frontier agreement between Afghanistan and the then British India in the year 1893. However if you see Afghanistan government is still having concerns over the legitimacy of this line as an international border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. So the first pair is correct. Now the second pair is medicine line that separates USA and Canada. Yes this pair is also correct. The medicine line refers to the border between Canada and the mainland United States of America specifically the 49th parallel from the Midwest region of America till the Pacific Ocean that is towards the western side of the mainland United States. Now why this name medicine line was given because the native Americans were fighting the US troops in the 19th century and up to this border the US troops used to chase and beyond this border they give up. As a result the native Americans who fought against the US troops regarded this line as the magical line or the medicine line. So this name medicine line was given by the native Americans. So here the second pair is also correct. Now look at the third pair it tells that Maginot line between France and Spain. Now this pair is wrong because Maginot line refers to the border of France with Germany. This border is named after French war minister Antrim Maginot since he played a significant role in building fortifications after World War I. The intention for the fortifications in this line was to prevent cross-border attack with Germany. So Maginot line is between France and Germany and not France and Spain. Now you need to choose the pair or pairs which are not correctly matched only the third pair is not correctly matched. So the correct answer here is option C 3 only. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about Jal Shakti Abhyan. Now let us look at about Jal Shakti Abhyan. See it was a time-bound mission mode water conservation campaign carried out by the central government to be specific by the department of drinking water and sanitation which comes under the ministry of Jal Shakti. See this water conservation campaign was conducted in two phases. The first phase was for all the states and union territories and the second phase was for those states and union territories that received the retreating monsoon nothing but the northeast monsoon. These states are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Puducherry and Tamil Nadu. During this campaign officers, groundwater experts and scientists from government of India that is from the central government all worked together with the state and district officials in India's most water stressed districts and if you see this campaign is for water conservation and water resource management. The main focus is on accelerated implementation of these five target interventions. They are water conservation and rainwater harvesting then renovation of traditional and other water bodies and tanks and then reuse of water and recharge of water storage structures then watershed development and finally intensive afforestation. So these are the five target interventions that was planned under Jal Shakti Abhyan. See this mission aims at making water conservation a Janandolan that is a people's movement. So the main aim is asset creation and extensive communication for water conservation. Now in addition to these five main targeted intervention areas there are five additional special intervention areas which are given here for your reference. So this is all about this Jal Shakti Abhyan. Now look at this question, the question is which of the following is not an intervention area under Jal Shakti Abhyan. We just saw that it is basically a water conservation campaign. So if the theme is water conservation you can easily eliminate option C here which is interlinking of rivers because usually if you see interlinking of rivers is a long time project whereas what we saw in Jal Shakti Abhyan was a mission mode water conservation campaign that is within a limited time. So only five intervention areas were identified and if you go by reasoning you can easily eliminate option C. So the correct answer here is option C interlinking of rivers. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about Japanese encephalities which is recently seen in news. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Now look at the first statement it tells that it is caused by bacteria which is passed on to humans from animals through an infected mosquito. And the second statement is about vaccination. It tells that vaccination is available to prevent Japanese encephalities in India. Now let us look in brief about Japanese encephalities. See it is caused by a virus not a bacteria. The virus name is Japanese encephalities virus and this virus belongs to the genus flavivirus. See this Japanese encephalities virus is the most important cause of viral encephalities that is the inflammation of the brain. And this virus is spread by mosquitoes. So we can also call this as mosquito-borne flavivirus. We saw that the genus is flavivirus. It is same as that which causes dengue, yellow fever, West Nile fever. If you see particularly this Japanese encephalities virus is transmitted to humans through bites from infected mosquitoes of the Culek species. So remember this. See this Japanese encephalities virus is prevalent across Asia and western Pacific as you can see in this map. In most temperate areas of Asia this virus is transmitted mainly during the warm season when large epidemics can occur. And in the tropics and subtropics the transmission usually is year round but often if you see it intensifies during the rainy season and especially during the pre-harvest period in the rice cultivating regions. Now let us look how this virus is transmitted. See the virus exists in a transmission cycle between mosquitoes, pigs and our water birds and humans get infected when they are bitten by an infected mosquito. Most of the Japanese encephalities virus infections are mild which only results in fever and headache or even it is sometimes without any apparent symptoms as well. But if you see approximately one in 200 infections result in severe disease and it is characterized by certain symptoms like rapid onset of high fever, then headache, the neck stiffness, then disorientation, then coma, then seizures, then spastic paralysis and finally it leads to death. So you can see that one in 200 infections are severe. Now who gets easily infected? See in areas where this Japanese encephalities virus is common this disease occurs mainly in young children because older children and adults have already been infected and they become immune. Next coming to the treatment if you see there is no cure for this disease whatever treatment is given it is focused on relieving severe clinical science and supporting the patient to overcome the infection. So we can see that there is no cure that is treatment once if a person is infected by the disease. But if you see vaccines are available to prevent Japanese encephalities. So vaccines can be used as a precautionary measure. In India if you see vaccination for Japanese encephalities is given as per national immunization schedule. Now if you see this Japanese encephalities vaccine is given only in select districts across India where this Japanese encephalities is endemic. So just have an idea that Japanese encephalities vaccine is administered as a part of universal immunization program in India. Now with this background information in mind now let us again look at this question. The first statement tells that it is caused by bacteria which is passed on to humans to animals through an infected mosquito. We just saw that Japanese encephalities is caused by a virus. So easily you can eliminate this first statement hence the first statement goes wrong. Now look at the second statement it tells that vaccination is available to prevent Japanese encephalities in India. It is a common statement it just tells that vaccination is available to prevent Japanese encephalities in India. Nowhere in the statement it is specific regarding whether it's administered to all the districts across India. Since it is a common statement it is a correct statement as we just saw that this Japanese encephalities vaccine is given in select districts that are endemic for Japanese encephalities under universal immunization program. So the first statement is incorrect the second statement is correct. Now you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Here the correct answer is option be 2 only. Now let us look at this question which is about Karchipuja. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement it tells that it is a festival celebrated in Nagaland and the second statement tells that it was recently recognized by UNESCO as one of the intangible cultural heritage and its representative list of the intangible cultural heritage of humanity. Now let us look at about this Karchipuja in brief. See it is major festival which is celebrated in the state of Tripura. It is a major festival of Tripura tribes actually. This word Karchi is derived from the word kya which means earth. So Karchipuja means worshipping the earth and there are also some other names for this puja which is called as Chathurdash or Chaudadevta puja. See it is a week long festival which is held at a place called as Chathurdash Devta or Chaudadevta bari which is situated in old Agartala. If you see old Agartala was the capital of the former rulers of Tripura and this Chathurdash Devta were their family deities. So this temple is actually the premises of 14 gods. It is celebrated in the month of July. The puja is performed by the tribal people and this includes worshipping of 14 gods and Mother Earth. The list of 14 gods who are worshipped are given here for your reference. See one of the integral feature of this Karchipuja is that animal sacrifices are offered by the devotees like goat, pigeon, etc. And also if you see people offer sweets apart from the sacrificial meat to God. This festival integrates the tribal and the non-tribal people of Tripura and it is said that no other festival in Tripura is held with so much pomp and show as this Karchipuja festival. Formerly if you see this festival was purely a tribal affair but nowadays if you see people of all communities participate freely and take equal interest in conducting this festival. So this is all about this Karchipuja. Now with this background information in mind now let us look at this question. Look at the first statement it tells that Karchipuja is a festival celebrated in Nagaland. We just saw it is celebrated in Tripura. So the first statement is wrong. Now look at the second statement it tells that it was recently recognized by UNESCO as one of the intangible cultural heritage in its representative list of the intangible cultural heritage of humanity. No this statement is also wrong. See there are 13 intangible cultural heritage which have been recognized by UNESCO and which finds a place in the representative list of the intangible cultural heritage of humanity of UNESCO. The list of all these 13 intangible cultural heritage is given here for your reference. So you can see that Karchipuja is not recognized by UNESCO. So the second statement also goes wrong. Now we need to choose the correct statements. Here the correct answer is option D neither one nor two. So always when you try to read about any festivals like this which you think is of importance try to relate with certain important lists like this intangible cultural heritage list which is maintained by UNESCO. So if you are able to actually relate and read it will provide you an edge in attempting the questions. This question is on multi-dimensional poverty index. They have given some indicators and they are asking which of these indicators are considered under multi-dimensional poverty index. See the Human Development Report Office releases five composite indices each year namely the Human Development Index, the Inequality Adjusted Human Development Index, then the Gender Development Index, then the Gender Inequality Index and finally the Multidimensional Poverty Index. So you can see that one among the reports released by the Human Development Report Offices the Multidimensional Poverty Index. See this index is produced by the United Nations Development Program under which this Human Development Report Office comes and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative. See this index is a non-monetary measure of deprivation. This index is published in the Human Development Report since the year 2010. See three dimensions of poverty have been considered for this Multidimensional Poverty Index which are health, education and standard of living and totally all these three dimensions comprise of 10 indicators. The health and the education dimensions are based on two indicators each whereas the standard of living is based on six indicators. Under health we have nutrition, child mortality then under education we have years of schooling, school attendance and under standard of living dimension we have cooking, fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, assets. Now why health and education dimension have been considered is because if there is poor health and if there is low education achievement then both these can hinder the ability of an individual to earn income or participate in the social and political life. So if you see this Multidimensional Poverty Index looks beyond income to understand how people experience poverty in multiple and simultaneous ways. It identifies how people are being left behind across these three key dimensions. So if any individual who experiences deprivation in at least one third of these weighted indicators will fall into the category of multidimensionally poor. So each person in a given household is classified as poor or non-poor depending on the weighted number of deprivations which his or her household and as a result he or she experiences. This Multidimensional Poverty Index reflects both the incidents of multidimensional deprivation that is a head count of those in multidimensional poverty and also the deprivations intensity that is the average deprivation score experienced by poor people. So using both these we can create comprehensive picture of people who are living in poverty and it also allows for comparisons across countries regions and the world and also within countries by ethnic group urban or rural location etc. Now coming to the 2019 estimation this index estimates for around 101 countries which have a combined population of 5.7 billion which is roughly about 77 percentage of the world's total population and out of this it was found that 1.3 billion people that is 23 percentage lived in multidimensional poverty between 2006 and 2016-17. These are some of the statistics of the multidimensionally poor population were living across various locations then based on the income etc. See the challenges faced by poor people in rural areas are that they tend to have deprivations in education and in access to water sanitation electricity and housing but if you see the challenges which the urban people face are child mortality and malnutrition. Now if you see with respect to India 27.9 percentage of the population that is roughly around 3.74 lakh people are multidimensionally poor and an additional 19.3 percentage are classified as vulnerable to multidimensional poverty. So these are just some of the statistics which will be helpful for you in your main exam. Now what you need to focus in this topic is the three dimensions and the 10 indicators. This question is based on the indicators which are considered in calculating this multidimensional poverty index. Now if you see employment is not an indicator as you can see in this table so here the correct answer is option C 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 D. This question is about Osaka track. The question is the term Osaka track recently in news is associated with which one of the following organizations. Now let us look about Osaka track. See this Osaka track was adopted in the G20 summit of 2019 which happened at Osaka in Japan. See this Osaka track is basically a framework that creates a set of international rules enabling free movement of data across borders. See this Osaka track is based on the digital economy. It is intended to supplement and add momentum to the e-commerce negotiations which are happening at the World Trade Organization. So it is an initiative of G20. Remember this. So here the correct answer is option B G20. Now what you need to know here is that India was the only nation that did not participate in this session. It boycotted Osaka track because India thought that it undermined the core WTO principles for arriving at consensus based decisions along with India, South Africa and Indonesia also boycotted the Osaka track for these following reasons undermining multilateral principles of consensus based decisions which are taken in global trade negotiations then denying of policy space for digital industrialization in the developing countries and on the basis of aiming to legitimize the informal plurilateral negotiations that is between two or more countries on digital trade that were never approved at the World Trade Organization. Here what actually happened was countries like United States, Australia, Singapore, Japan and even the European Union all pushed hard for the plurilateral negotiations on digital trade. Their intention was to create rules on data flows then removing prohibitions on data localization, cloud computing etc. But if you see India and some other countries had many concerns on these things and much of these plurilateral rules on digital trade were based on the comprehensive and progressive agreement for trans-pacific partnership. So because of the major concerns India boycotted this Osaka track but just have an idea that Osaka track is associated with G20. So the correct answer to this question is option B G20. Now let us look at this question which is on outer space treaty. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. The first statement tells that it is regarding the use and exploration of outer space excluding other celestial bodies and second statement tells that it completely bans military activities within space including ordinary weapons. See this treaty which is mentioned in the question is nothing but the outer space treaty of 1967 this is the full name of this treaty. Now we need to know that this treaty is for the exploration and use of outer space including moon and other celestial bodies and such exploration shall be carried out for the benefit and in interest of all countries irrespective of their degree of economic or scientific development. So you can see that it includes use and exploration of celestial bodies as well. So the first statement is incorrect because it tells that it is excluding but it is in fact including. Now if you see there are 10 principles that are outlined in this outer space treaty as you can see here all these 10 principles form the core of this treaty. Now if you remember these principles they detail what the treaty is all about. See one of the principles is the states shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner and if you see this treaty also states that the moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes and this treaty prohibits the establishment of military bases, installations and fortifications and even testing of any types of weapons and the conduct of military manoeuvres on such celestial bodies. However if you see the use of military personnel for scientific research or for any other peaceful purposes is not prohibited. So the first half of this second statement is actually correct it bans military activities within the space but if you see this treaty does not ban ordinary weapons because it tells that the weapons of mass destruction or nuclear weapons are prohibited in space. So weapons in general are not prohibited. So as a whole if you see this second statement is incorrect. Additionally know that India is a signatory to this outer space treaty of 1967. Now you need to choose the correct statements since both the statements are wrong the correct answer is option D neither one nor two. This question is about plunits. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. Look at the first statement it tells that plunits were first discovered by NASA and the second statement tells that it is a moon of exoplanets that broke away from their own orbit and acts like a planet. Now imagine an exoplanet which is a gas giant that is orbiting its star and there is a moon which orbits the exoplanet. Now imagine the moon turns rogue and it breaks away from the orbit or it is being forced out of its orbit by the exoplanet. Now we can tell that this rogue moon is going off on its own trip and in effect it is behaving like a planet in its own right. Now what to call this a moon or a planet see an international team of astronomers have suggested to call it as plunit. So plunits are basically objects that begin as moons around large planets but eventually move out on their own.  So the second statement is correct here we just saw that this term plunit has been named by an international team of astronomers. They have published a paper in the journal monthly notices of the Royal Astronomical Society and in this they have suggested to call it as plunit. So it was not discovered or named by NASA. So the first statement goes wrong now we need to choose a correct statement or statements since the second statement is correct the correct answer is option B 2 only. This question is about the status of tigers in India 2018 report it is a fact-based question sometimes you do get such fact-based questions in UPSC. Now let us look in brief about this status of tigers in India 2018 report. See it is the fourth cycle of all in your tiger estimation. Now why tiger estimation is important because tigers are top predators they are vital in regulating and perpetuating the ecological processes. Now if you look in India tigers inhabit in a wide variety of habitats from high mountains to mangrove swamps then tall grasslands to dry and moist deciduous forests as well as evergreen and solar forest systems. Tigers need large undisturbed tracts of habitat and they need to have ample prey in order to maintain long-term viable population. So we can see that tigers act as an umbrella species for a majority of ecoregions in the Indian subcontinent. Now what this survey has done is that it has covered 20 tiger-occupied states of India and according to this survey the overall tiger population in India was estimated at 2967. Now this is a 33% rise when compared to the previous estimate. Now this analysis suggests that loss and gain of tiger occupancy was mostly from habitat pockets that support low density populations. Now these habitats which have low density of tigers are crucial links for gene flow and for maintaining connectivity between the source populations and the loss and the gain of tiger occupancy in these marginal areas is a dynamic process. It depends on several factors like proximity of a tiger source population then anthropogenic pressures that are operating in the landscape then the associated change in habitat conditions and also the protection regime. Now this survey has found that the tiger occupancy has increased in the state of Madhya Pradesh and in the state of Andhra Pradesh. You just know that Andhra Pradesh estimates include Telangana's tiger population as well. And this survey tells that Madhya Pradesh is the state with the highest tiger population. But remember before this Karnataka was the state with highest tiger population. Now Karnataka is in the second place. So remember this fact and the state of Madhya Pradesh saw the largest increase in number of tiger population from 308 to 526. The tiger population in the top three states is given here for your reference. So from this you can tell that the third statement of this question is correct which is the largest increase in the number of tigers has been in the state of Madhya Pradesh. Next if you see this survey findings tell that there is a poor and continuing decline in the tiger status in three states which are Chattisgarh, Odisha and Nizoram. But here just have an idea that there is an overall decline in the state of Odisha from 2006 till 2018. But from 2014 to 2018 the number has remained constant for Odisha. Now if you look at the first statement here it tells that Chattisgarh is the only one of the 20 tiger bearing states that has seen a fallen number of tigers. This statement is wrong because we just saw that Chattisgarh, Odisha and Nizoram have all seen continuing decline in the tiger status. Next with respect to the tiger reserves the tiger reserves of Nameri and Pakke have registered declines. Here have an idea that Nameri tiger reserve is located in Assam and Pakke in the state of Arunachal Pradesh. Next if you look at this report three tiger reserves have not recorded tiger populations in this assessment. They are Buxa tiger reserve, Palamov and Dampa tiger reserve. So these three are tiger reserves with no tiger population. So this is an interesting fact now if you need to remember this fact based on this fact this second statement has been framed which tells that no tiger has been recorded in the Buxa, Palamov and Dampa tiger reserves. Now thinking that this statement is contradicting you might assume that the second statement is wrong but in fact this second statement is a correct statement. So here second and third statements are correct and the first statement is wrong. The correct answer is option C 2 and 3 only. Know that Buxa tiger reserve is located in West Bengal, Palamov in Jharkhand and Dampa in Nizoram. Now look at this question which is on world energy outlook. The question is a direct question world energy outlook is published by. Here the correct answer is option D international energy agency. See it is published every year by the international energy agency. It was published for the first time in the year 1977. See this publication is leading source of strategic insight on the future of energy and energy related emissions. It provides detailed scenarios that map out the consequences of different energy policy and investment choices taken by the stakeholders across the world. It provides critical analysis and insights on the trends in energy demand and supply across the world and what they mean for energy security environmental protection and economic development. Now that we have seen about this world energy outlook let us also look in brief about this international energy agency which releases this world energy outlook. Know that it is an autonomous intergovernmental organization within the OECD framework which is the organization for economic cooperation and development. Know that this international energy agency has 30 member countries, eight association countries and two accession countries that is two countries which are seeking accession for full membership. Here what you need to know is that India is not a member of international energy agency it is an association country of international energy agency. Since we saw that this international energy agency comes under the OECD framework also know that India is not a member of this OECD framework as well but it is a key partner of OECD taking part across many initiatives of OECD. So here the correct answer is option D international energy agency. This question is about the automated facial recognition system two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. See the first statement is about the modern technologies which are used in this automated facial recognition system and the second statement is about which ministry is going to implement this system in India. First let us look at about automated facial recognition system. See this system is used for automatic identification and verification of persons with the help of digital images, photos, digital sketches, video frames and video sources. So how it is done? See it is done by comparing selected facial features of the image with an already existing image database. So it is like taking the facial features from an already existing group of images and checking it with a new image in order to find the similarity. So this is how automated facial recognition system works. Now know that this automated facial recognition system is going to be implemented in India. It will be a centralized web application and it will be hosted at the National Crime Records Bureau data center which is located at New Delhi. Know that National Crime Records Bureau comes under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. Now let us look at the application of this automated facial recognition system. See it is an investigation enhancer because it helps the investigators to meet the challenges in criminal identification and verification and then if you see it also helps in the identification of missing children and unidentified dead bodies. Now if you look modern technologies such as artificial intelligence, deep learning and neural networks for matching are used in this automated facial recognition system. Here you need to know that this system that is the automated facial recognition system will not be a standalone database. It will be integrated with some of the existing databases in India like for example the passport database, then crime and criminal tracking network and system, then the database of interoperable criminal justice system and then the prisons and the database of the Ministry of Women and Child Development which is called as Koya Paya and such other databases. So it will be integrated with some of the existing databases. Now since this automated facial recognition system database has personal information about a person that is about an individual there is always a concern about privacy. But here you need to know that this automated facial recognition system will have an encryption and decryption engine in order to prevent unauthorized access to data. So this will ensure the privacy of the individuals because if you see there are concerns from various sections of the society that this is yet another tool for mass surveillance which will breach the privacy of the individual. So this is all that you need to know about automated facial recognition system. Now with this background knowledge in mind let us look at this question. The first statement tells that it is based on the most modern technologies such as artificial intelligence and machine learning. Yes this statement is correct. Now look at the second statement. It tells that it is being implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. This statement is wrong because it is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs to be specific the National Crime Records Bureau. The main purpose of the system is to facilitate better identification of criminals, unidentified dead bodies and missing of found children and persons. So it will be accessible only to the law enforcement agencies. So here the second statement goes wrong. Now we need to choose the correct statement or statements. The correct answer here is option A, one only. If you want to know more about this automated facial recognition system we request the viewers to have a look at our 9th July the Hindu news analysis. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about black gold. The term black gold sometimes seen in news refers to. See black gold is a newly discovered material. It was discovered by a group of scientists from the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research which is located at Mumbai. Now what the scientists did was they used gold nanoparticles to develop this new material. Now why this new material is called as black gold because it is black in appearance. Note that the original gold nanoparticles which were used were not dope with other impurities or chemicals. But what the scientists did was they varied the inter particle distance between the gold nanoparticles to create this new material. After this they used the fibers of dendritic fibrous nanosilica to deposit these gold nanoparticles. Now you need not go deep into how they developed this. Just know that gold nanoparticles were used to develop this new material which is called as black gold. And why it is called as black gold because it is black in appearance. Now let us look at about the applications of this black gold. Note that it is capable to absorb the entire visible and near infrared region of solar light. So it can potentially be used for harnessing solar energy. And then if you see another property of black gold is that it acts as a catalyst and it can convert carbon dioxide into methane at atmospheric pressure and temperature. Now this is done by using solar energy. So in the future we may create an artificial tree with leaves that are made out of black gold. So this will be able to perform artificial photosynthesis by capturing the carbon dioxide and converting it into fuel such as the methane and other useful chemicals. See we have already said that black gold is capable of harvesting solar energy. Hence this material could also be used as a nanoheter. Now what nanoheters does is that they convert sea water into portable water with good efficiency. So in simple terms this newly found black gold as potential for water purification and desalination. So this is all that you need to know about black gold with this background information in mind. Now let us look at this question. The term black gold sometimes seen in news refers to. Here the correct answer is option B, a newly discovered material which has the capacity to desalinate water. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about the Consumer Protection Act of 2019. Three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements. Now let us look at about this Consumer Protection Act of 2019. Know that this act replaces the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Now let us look at the objectives of this act. See this act aims to strengthen the rights of consumers and ensure speedy redressal of complaints from consumers regarding the defects in goods and efficiency services. And know that this act has widened the scope of the term consumer. Under this act a consumer is a person who buys any good or avails a service. See this act is applicable to transactions through all modes. This includes offline transactions and then online transactions by using electronic means, tele-shopping, multi-level marketing and direct selling. And it also covers e-commerce. But if you see this act does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or a good or a service for commercial purpose. Next if you see this act has enhanced the rights of consumers. Their rights include right to be protected against hazardous goods and services. Then right to be informed about the quality and price and other details. And then it also includes the right to be assured of varieties at competitive prices. Then the right to be heard, right to seek redressal and even the right to consumer awareness. Another significant feature of this act is the right to file complaint from anywhere. So the consumer can even file a complaint from his place of residence and not only from the place where the product was purchased or where the seller of the product has registered office. Know that the act has introduced the concept of product liability. Now what this product liability deals with is that it is the responsibility of a product manufacturer or a product seller of any product or service to compensate for any harm that is caused to a consumer. And this liability even covers the mental distress that was caused to the consumer. Next if you see this act provides for establishment of central consumer protection authority with an investigation wing. The objective of this authority is to regulate matters of violation of the rights of consumers, then unfat rate practices and misleading advertisements etc. And even to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. And apart from this if you see this act provides for consumer disputes redressal commissions at the district, state and national levels. And whatever the orders of the consumer dispute redressal commissions are they can be appealed in the supreme court. Next if you see this act also provides for mediation as an alternate dispute resolution mechanism. But note that there can be no appeal against the settlement through mediation. Next if you see this central consumer protection authority as powers to impose penalty. They can impose penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser that is those celebrities who actually promote the product with a fine of up to 10 lakh rupees or even imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. So this is in brief about this consumer protection act of 2019 that you need to know from exam point of view. Now with this background information in mind let us look at this question. Three statements are given. Look at the first statement it tells that it has burdened the term consumer which now covers a person who obtains a good or service for resale and for commercial purpose. We saw that this act does not include this definition under the term consumer. So the first statement goes wrong. Now if you are able to eliminate the first statement you can directly arrive at the answer which is option C 2 and 3 only. So the second statement and the third statement are correct. As per the act the consumers have the right to be assured of varieties of products at competitive prices. And next if you see this act mandates the establishment of a central consumer protection authority to regulate matters of violation of rights of consumers, unfit trade practices and misleading advertisement. So the correct answer here is option C 2 and 3 only. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about delimitation commission. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. First let us look at about delimitation commission. Before that you need to know what is meant by delimitation. C delimitation is the process of fixing boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or in a state. In India if you see as per Indian constitution article number 82 provides for readjustment and the division of states into territorial constituencies for the parliamentary elections after each census. And then if you see article 170 provides the same for the assembly constituencies. Now the job of delimitation is assigned to higher power body in India which is called as delimitation commission. See under article number 82 the parliament can enact a delimitation act after every census. Following this the centre constitutes a delimitation commission. So know that delimitation commission is not a permanent body. Now what this delimitation commission does is that it demarcates the boundaries of the parliamentary constituencies as per the delimitation act. Till now if you see four commissions have been constituted by the parliament one in 1952 then in 1962 and then in 1972 and the fourth one was in the year 2002. So the present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census figures under the provisions of delimitation act of 2002. Now if you see the 84th constitutional amendment act of 2002 made it clear not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Possibly in the year 2031. So the present territorial constituencies which are based on 2001 census will continue till the first census after 2026. Here it is to be noted that after this 84th constitutional amendment act the allocation of Lok Sabha seats to different states is based on the 1971 census and also if you see the division of each state into territorial constituencies is based on 2001 census which is as per the 87th constitutional amendment act of 2003. Now if you see this delimitation commission consists of three members one a person who is or as being a judge of the supreme court who shall be the chairperson and then if you see the other members include the chief election commissioner or an election commissioner who is nominated by the chief election commissioner and then the state election commissioner of the concerned state. Next if you see there is an important function of this delimitation commission which is to refix the number of seats reserved for the schedule casts and the schedule tribes on the basis of 2001 census without affecting total number of seats based on the 1971 census. These are mentioned in articles 330 and 332. See article number 330 provides for refixing the number of seats reserved for schedule casts and schedule tribes in Lok Sabha based on 2001 census and then if you see article number 332 provides for the same in the case of legislative assemblies of the states. See this commission when its functioning shall determine its own procedure and it will have the powers of a civil court under the court of civil procedure of 1908. This delimitation commission is a high power body so their orders will have the force of law and they cannot be called in question before any court and these orders come into force on a date to be specified by the president of India in this behalf and if you see the copies of the orders of this delimitation commission are laid before the Lok Sabha that is the house of the people and in the concerned state legislative assembly and once it is stable no modifications can be made. So this is all about delimitation commission and the process of delimitation that happens in India. Now with this background information in mind look at this question two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statements look at the first statement it tells that the orders of the delimitation commission cannot be challenged in a court of law. Yes this statement is correct. Next if you see when the orders of the delimitation commission are laid before Lok Sabha or state legislative assembly they cannot affect any modification in the orders. Yes this statement is also correct the copies of the orders of the delimitation commission are to be laid before the Lok Sabha and the concerned state legislative assembly but once they are tabled there can be no modifications made. So the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. If you see we have also discussed about this delimitation commission in our 29th February 2020 analysis where we saw that the president has given not for delimitation in some of the north eastern states. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about Dracaina Cambodiana. So what is this Dracaina Cambodiana? See it is a newly discovered tree species. It has recently been discovered in the Dongka Sarpo area of the western Karbi Anglong in the state of Assam. See this dragon tree species is found across the world but it is for the first time that this species has been reported in India in the state of Assam. Know that Dracaina genus belongs to the family Asparaj ICA. See in India there are some nine species under this Dracaina genus which is present in the Himalayan region the northeast and in the Andamanan Nicobar islands but it is for the first time that this Dracaina Cambodiana has been found in Assam and know that it is the only true dragon tree species. Now why the species is so famous because it is known for its bright red resin which is also called as dragon's blood. See it is a precious material which is used in traditional medicine in China because it is believed to have certain antiviral and wound healing effects. Apart from being a medicinal plant it is also used as an ornamental tree. So this is why this species is so famous. But if you see this tree species face several threats. First and foremost is the overexploitation to meet the increasing demand for dragon blood. Next if you see fragmented habitats are leading to decline in this tree species the main reason is the open excavation of stone quarries. Then if you see another reason is the large size of its fruits because of this one if few species of birds are able to swallow and disperse the seeds. So these are some of the natural and manmade threats which this tree species face. Here just have an idea that the species is also listed in the list of rare and endangered plants of China. So this is all that you need to know about this Dracaina Cambodiana. Now with this information you can easily answer this question here the correct answer is option C a dragon tree species found in Assam. Now let us move on to the next question. Now this question is about finance industry development council. Four options are given and you need to know what is meant by finance industry development council. Know that it is a representative body of the non-banking finance companies that are operating in India. It was formed in the year 2004. Its headquarters is at Mumbai. See it is basically a self regulatory organization which is registered with the Reserve Bank of India. At present if you see this finance industry development council is the recognized phase of the non-banking finance company sector especially those engaged in assets and loan financing. Now let us look at in brief about the objectives of this finance industry development council. The most important objective is to ensure sustainable growth of assets and loan financing non-banking financial companies in India. It also aims to act as a bridge between the lending NBFCs and the regulators such as RBA. Also if you see it aims to provide proper protection to the depositors and the investors. So this is all that you need to know about finance industry development council. Now from this you can easily find out the answer which is option B. It is the representative body of the non-banking finance companies in India. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about Jatun software. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. First let us discuss in brief about the national portal and digital repository for Indian museums. See this portal and the digital repository is developed by human centered design and computing group. It comes under the Center for Development of Advanced Computing Pune which in turn comes under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Now what this portal does is it provides an integrated access to theme-based collections and artifacts which are located across various museums in India. So one can get to know the diverse range of digital collections in terms of sculptures, paintings, manuscripts, weapons, coins and numerous other categories of artifacts. And know that this project is funded by Ministry of Culture. So it is basically a digital collection. Now this digital collection is created using Jatun software which is also called the Virtual Museum Builder. So this Jatun software is a digital collection management system for the Indian museums. It is basically a client server application with features such as image cropping, water marking, unique numbering, management of digital objects with multimedia representations. Then if you see it also provides a collaborative framework for museum curators and historians. Apart from this Jatun software also contains features such as search and retrieval, then the three-dimensional that is the 3D virtual galleries and then features such as public access through web, mobile or touchscreen kiosks. As of now Jatun software is successfully deployed in 10 national museums across India. Now if you see this CDAC that is the Center for Development of Advanced Computing had earlier developed an application called Darshak. This Darshak application aimed at improving the museum visit experience among the differently abled section of population. It allowed them to gather all details about the objects or artifacts simply by scanning a QR code which is placed near the object. So in this discussion we have seen about Jatun software and then about the application called Darshak. Now with this background information in mind let us look at this question which is about Jatun software. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. The first statement tells that this Jatun software is a digital collection management system for Indian museums. Yes this statement is correct as we just saw. Now look at the second statement it tells that this Jatun software is aimed at improving the museum visit experience among the differently abled. Now we can see that the second statement contradicts the first statement because the first statement tells that it is a digital collection management system but the second statement tells that it aims to improve the museum visit experience. One is digital and the other is real time. We just saw during our discussion that it is the Darshak application which is aimed at improving the museum visit experience among the differently abled. So the second statement goes wrong. So the correct answer to this question is option A 1 only. Now let us move on to the next question. Now this question is about mosaic mission. Let us look at this mission first. See the full form is multi disciplinary drifting observatory for the study of Arctic climate. So this mosaic mission is the first year round expedition mission into the central Arctic region. The aim is to explore the Arctic climate system for an entire year from September 2019 till September 2020. Know that the first expedition to Arctic was before 126 years by a Norwegian named Fridger of Nansen which is called as the Fram expedition. So that is the first expedition to Arctic. This mosaic mission is the first year round expedition to the central Arctic region. See this mosaic mission will take a modern research icebreaker which is laden with scientific instruments to the North Pole in the winter season. This icebreaker vessel is a German vessel called Polarstone. This research vessel will be locked into a large ice sheet which is called as flow. The vessel will then drift with the flow even during winter such that the North Pole will be accessible. This is why it is called as drifting mission. Now let us discuss the objectives of this mission. This mission aims to take the closest look ever at the Arctic region. Other objectives are to gather data about the sea ice, then atmosphere, then the ocean, then biogeochemistry and ecosystem in the Arctic. Then this mission also aims to take a closer look at the impact of global warming and climate change in the Arctic. Then it aims to develop a climate model for the Arctic to get a more reliable forecasting of the Arctic. And then this mission also aims to study regional and global effects of Arctic climate change. Now know that hundreds of researchers from 19 countries are leading this mission and an Indian researcher will also be a part of this mission. But know that India is not an expedition partner in this mission. There are 20 expedition partners. India is not a partner but only the researcher will be contributing as a part of this mission. And know that this research is led by the Alfred Wegener Institute, Helmholtz Center for Polar and Marine Research which is located in Germany. Now that we have seen about Arctic mission, let us look at India and the Antarctic. See India does research activities in the Antarctic region. India has ratified the Antarctic Treaty of 1959 in the year 1983. Then if you see the Indian Antarctic program began under the National Center for Polar and Ocean Research which comes under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Know that this Antarctic Treaty covers areas south of 60 degree south latitude which is called as the Antarctic Treaty area. And if you see this treaty prohibits nuclear explosions, then radioactive waste disposal and then military deployments in this Antarctic Treaty area. However if you see using military personnel to support scientists is allowed. Now let us look at about India's research stations in Antarctica. The first station was Dakshan Gangotri which was decommissioned. The other stations are Maitri and Bharti. Maitri was built in the year 1989. It is located near the Skirmacher Oasis. And there is also a freshwater lake which is called as Lake Priyadashini which is located near this Maitri research station. The third Antarctic research facility is Bharti which is working on a trial basis since the year 2012. See it is located between the Thalaford and Quilty Bay which is located east of Stornes Peninsula in Antarctica. It mainly researches the Indian subcontinents geological history because if you see Indian Antarctica were once part of Gondwana land. So this is in brief about India's mission in Antarctica. Now with these background information in mind let us look at this question which is about mosaic mission. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement it tells that one of its objectives is to develop a climate model for the Arctic to get a more reliable forecasting of the Arctic. Yes this statement is correct mosaic mission is about exploring the Arctic region in order to have a better understanding about various environmental parameters in the Arctic region. Now look at the second statement it tells that India is a partnering country in this expedition mission. This statement is wrong because we saw that India is not a partnering country in this mission but one of the researchers from India is actually taking part in this mission. So the correct answer to this question is option A 1-1 leap. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about survival international. Know that survival international is a global movement which is working on human rights especially the tribal people's rights. It is working since 1969. This survival international champions rights of tribal people around the world. It defends their lives, protects their lands and does many other activities to protect the rights of tribal people across the world. So here the correct answer is option C tribal rights. For animal rights we have a global movement called as PETA which is people for the ethical treatment of animals. Next, queer rights in general refers to the LGBT movement and to advocate racial equality and to prevent racial discrimination we have the human rights watch which is an international non-governmental organization. Apart from this we also have many other UN institutions on human rights. So just have an idea about survival international in the context of this question. See this question is about N. G. O. Darpan. First let us look at N. G. O. Darpan. Know that it is a platform that provides space for interface between the voluntary organizations and the non-governmental organizations with the key government ministries, departments and government bodies. So as of now this interface is only with some of the important government ministries, departments and government bodies. Later it is proposed to cover all the central ministries, departments and government bodies. Know that this N. G. O. Darpan portal enables the voluntary organizations and the non-governmental organizations to enroll centrally. Thus it facilitates creation of a repository of sector wise or state wise information about these voluntary organizations and N. G. O. So this will ensure better transparency, efficiency and accountability in the functioning of the N. G. O. Know that N. G. O. Darpan was started as an initiative of the prime minister's office in order to create and promote a healthy partnership between the voluntary organizations and N. G. O. and the government of India. So here know that the initiative is that of the prime minister's office but if you see it was earlier maintained by the erstwhile planning commission and we know that N. T. I. O. has replaced the planning commission. So now N. T. I. O. regulates this N. G. O. Darpan in association with the National Informatics Center which functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. So as of now N. T. I. O. in association with NIC is managing this N. G. O. Darpan. So remember the difference initiative is prime minister's office but the regulation is by N. T. I. O. Know that this portal facilitates the voluntary organizations and the non-governmental organizations to obtain a system generated unique ID as and when signed. Now this unique ID is mandatory to apply for grants under various schemes of ministries, departments and government bodies. So this is the importance of this N. G. O. Darpan portal. Now with this information let us look at this question. The question is N. G. O. Darpan which has recently been on news is regulated by here the correct answer is option C. N. T. I. O. It is an initiative of prime minister's office but it is regulated by N. T. I. O. along with National Informatics Center. So the correct answer is option C. Now let us move on to the next question. This question is about punch mission. This question is important in the context of space missions and their relevance. First let us see what do we mean by punch mission. See it is a mission of NASA that is the United States Space Research Organization. This punch mission will consist of a constellation of four suitcase-sized microsats that will orbit the earth in a formation. And it will study how the corona which is the atmosphere of the sun connects with the interplanetary medium. So the punch mission will focus on understanding the transition of particles from the sun's outer corona to the solar wind that fills the interplanetary space. See punch stands for polarimeter to unify the corona and heliosphere. As we saw it will consist of a constellation of four suitcase-sized microsats that will orbit the earth in a formation. See this mission is expected to be launched around 2022 to 2023. Now if you look at the question you can easily arrive at the answer which is option C. It is a mission of NASA where constellation of four suitcase-sized microsats will orbit the earth to understand about the transition of particles from the sun's outer corona to the solar wind that fills the interplanetary space. So