If [math]\lim\limits_{x→a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1,[/math] does it necessarily mean that [math]\lim\limits_{x→a} f(x) = \lim\limits_{x→a} g(x)[/math]
What is [math] \int f(g(x)) [/math][math]dx [/math] and [math]\frac{df(g(x))}{dx}[/math]?