While I cannot prove it, I think we may take it (based on what evidence we have) that there has also been a widening of inequality within the wealth distribution (using conventional measures of inequality) since the beginning of the millennium. Furthermore, the churn within the distribution has been substantial. Clearly many people who had become rich lost all of their gains.
Other rich people were relatively unaffected. But the sizable group which incurred heavy debts to acquire property close to the top of the market have seen their net worth (even if modest to begin with) wiped out entirely.