Why can&#39;t a public body exercise its powers for any purpose allowed by the empowering statute?
<p>In this <a href="https://learninglink.oup.com/access/content/faragher-concentrate6e-resources/faragher-concentrate6e-chapter-11-self-test-questions?previousFilter=tag_chapter-11" rel="nofollow noreferrer">online multiple choice question</a>, I picked the last choice. I agree that the first choice is true, but why's the last one wrong?</p>
<p><a href="https://i.stack.imgur.com/teiob.jpg" rel="nofollow noreferrer"><img src="https://i.stack.imgur.com/teiob.jpg" alt="enter image description here" /></a></p>

<p>Break it down then take it to an absurd extreme to prove a point:</p>
<p>HMRC exercises its powers to collect PAYE tax</p>
<p>For the purposes to fund the NHS and to pay for all its employees to have a free hair cut once the current lockdown has been lifted</p>
<p>One of which is allowed by <a href="https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/2003/1/contents" rel="nofollow noreferrer">statute</a> (PAYE not hair cuts)</p>

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