Can plaintiff and defendant both want the same thing (court order)
<p>My friend recently sold his car to me and left the country (United States). We did not notarize the title and now (NC)DMV refuses to transfer the title to me. My friend is not coming back to the US to notarize the title.</p>

<p>I've consulted traffic lawyers, option 1, bonded title is way too expensive.</p>

<p>Option 2, I sue my friend and have the court order DMV to transfer the title to me. Is it possible since both my friend and myself just want the title transfered to me? It sounds crazy enough that it might actually work.</p>

<h2>Yes</h2>

<p>Courts can enter a judgement agreed by the parties, however, they will not do so for unlawful agreements or that otherwise conflict with public policy.</p>

<h2>Uncontested divorce</h2>

<p>A <em>very</em> frequent example of this is uncontested cases of "no-fault" divorce in the United States. Divorce was historically treated as a "one spouse against the other" proceeding in which the depths of devotion, etc. were probed in court and a determination made as to whether the defendant had been a very bad boy/girl and transgressed their marital duties. If the defendant won, <em>there was no divorce</em>. Common grounds for divorce included adultery, domestic violence, and abandonment. Nowadays, a very large number of divorce cases are couples who have <em>already</em> decided to split up, and so whoever ends up being the defendant is not going to try to make a case in defense of the marriage. If there has already been an amicable agreement as to disposition of property, custody of children, etc., there may not be any dispute at all to be brought to court (neither whether the divorce should happen, nor the details thereof), but a lawsuit is still technically required for the divorce to be finalized.</p>

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