How can a country imprison people without violating UDHR article 3?
<p>I am surprised I cannot find any information on this topic on SE Law, as it seems to be an obvious question; when reading the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, I was wondering:</p>

<p><strong>The Universal Declaration of Human Rights article 3 states that everyone has the right to liberty. How is it that countries can imprison criminals without violating this article?</strong></p>

<p>Should I interpret this as <em>a Utopian situation which has not been achieved by far</em>, or <em>a 'right to try to escape from prison'</em>, or something totally different?</p>

<p>The right to liberty includes a right not to be robbed, murdered or raped. Article 30 of the Declaration states </p>

<blockquote>
  <p>Nothing in this Declaration may be interpreted as implying for any
  State, group or person any right to engage in any activity or to
  perform any act aimed at the destruction of any of the rights and
  freedoms set forth herein.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is first of all, not self-executing and doesn't have legal effect of its own.</p>

<p>Secondly, it is generally recognized that all rights are subject to reasonable regulation and restriction.</p>

human-rights