How does a Contract work with Effective Date not filled in but has document signed and dated but not by all parties
<p>I'm looking at a document and I am confused if the contract is valid.  Hopefully my over simplified example will help.</p>

<p>One page one of the document it has The Amendment of Operating Agreement ("Amendedment") is dated ______________, 2012.</p>

<p>The section with _________________ is not filled out.</p>

<p>The contract is then signed and dated by three parties.</p>

<p>Mr Party One
6/1/2012</p>

<p>Mr Party Two
6/1/2012</p>

<p>Mr Party Three
6/1/</p>

<p>That's correct Mr Party three did not place a year.  So I'm confused as to how this contract could be be valid based on no clear starting date with the three parties that's needed.  </p>

<p>If the parties are in fact in agreement, the blank spaces would be merely clerical errors, and of no significance. In the case of Party three, there seems good reason to assume that the same year as the other two was intended, and the contract would be treated in that way, unless there is significant evidence to the contrary. No such evidence is quoted in the question.  That party three specified the same month and day as the other two makes it unlikely that the actual date of party 3's signing was exactly 1 or more years later, or earlier. That the same year appears printed in the date clause that was not filled in supports this assumption.</p>

<p>If the parties agree that the effective date should be some other date, they can agree to modify the contract. If they disagree, it would depend on what evidence of the original understandign could be presented. </p>

contract-law