What is the purpose of a Notice of Understanding and Intent and Claim of Rights?
<p>While looking up interpretations of the meaning of Karnivool's "All I Know", I saw the following meaning of the song:</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>This is the Karnivool's Notice of Understanding and Intent.</p>
  
  <p>From Black's Law Dictionary:
  Understanding: an agreement to "stand under", or be bound by, the terms of a contract.</p>
  
  <p>In all common law jurisdictions under the British Empire (Australia, Great Britain, Canada, New Zealand, etc), you can send a notice to the government, informing them what your understanding of the world is. Further, you inform them what your personal laws are, and how you are going to live your life. Lawyers and Law Students in these countries have been encouraged to remove themselves from being bound by all the acts, statutes, and codes of their particular country of origin. The rest of us (slaves) are never told that we can do this. Seems someone told the band. :)
  <a href="http://songmeanings.com/songs/view/3530822107858778900/?&amp;specific_com=73015970529#comments" rel="nofollow">Songmeanings</a></p>
</blockquote>

<p>He has this phrased like it's the ability to decide which laws you follow, and that it's an ability being withheld from the general public (although I seriously doubt that at least the former is the case). </p>

<p>I tried searching for a solid definition, but all I could find was people/organization's Notice of Understanding and Intent and Claim of Rights. </p>

<p>What is the purpose of declaring your Notice of Understanding and Intent and Claim of Rights? </p>

<blockquote>
  <p>He has this phrased like it's the ability to decide which laws you follow, and that it's an ability being withheld from the general public (although I seriously doubt that at least the former is the case). </p>
</blockquote>

<p>This is yet another false claim made by "freemen" or those who claim "common law defences".</p>

<p><em>Notice of Understanding</em> has no legal meaning unless the context demands that it evidences a meeting of the minds for the purposes of contract formation.</p>

<p>It is a well-settled principle of common law that in order to be bound by a contract, there must be an agreement. Put simply, I cannot bind someone simply by sending them a Notice unless it is a right conferred on me by some earlier statute or legislation, or legally binding agreement.</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>I tried searching for a solid definition, but all I could find was people/organization's Notice of Understanding and Intent and Claim of Rights. </p>
</blockquote>

<p>The reason you've found nothing official about the terms <em>Notice of Understanding and Intent</em> and <em>Claim of Rights</em> is that there <em>is nothing official or legal about those terms</em>. They are ordinary terms with ordinary meaning being bastardised by deluded people who believe they can fine the government and refuse to be bound by the law of the land.</p>

<p>Of course, none of this holds up.</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>What is the purpose of declaring your Notice of Understanding and Intent and Claim of Rights? </p>
</blockquote>

<p>It might make you feel better, even though it has no legal, practical or other effect.</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>What is the purpose of declaring your Notice of Understanding and Intent and Claim of Rights?</p>
</blockquote>

<p>Its purpose is to put forward your understanding of what a lyricist meant by making stuff up that has no meaning in the real world beyond what the simple English words mean.</p>

<p>A "Notice of Understanding" is not a legal term; its a perfectly sensible English phrase that you might use to describe a document where you write out your understanding of something in order to tell someone else what that is.</p>

<p>Similarly "Claim of Rights" is not a legal term; again, it is a perfectly sensible English phrase where you inform someone that you intend to claim rights that you may (or may not) have.</p>

<p>Another good English phrase is "Rule of Law". This means that a country operates based on the philosophy that the law applies equally to <em>everybody</em>, among other things. In particular, the former British Dominions that you mentioned (British Empire having as much relevance today as Roman Empire does) <em>all</em> have a strong rule of law meaning that the law applies equally to everyone.</p>

human-rights