Does a stipulation in the deed of sale subvert the purchaser&#39;s title?
<p><a href="https://www.thevintagenews.com/2015/07/08/french-soldiers-room-untouched-96-years-after-his-death-in-first-world-war/" rel="nofollow">This article</a> carries an instance wherein certain immovable property was sold with certain stipulation/s.</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>When his parents decided to move in, in 1935, they stipulated in the
  sale that the room should not be changed for 500 years.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>Does a stipulation in the deed of sale subvert/undermine the purchaser's title by placing restrictions on how the property may best be enjoyed? </p>

<p>I'm unfamiliar with French law but in a common law system you are free to contract for whatever you like providing that it is not illegal. </p>

<p>However, the difficulty with such a term is enforcement. Imagine if, after the parents had died, the term was breached: who would know or care? Or if the property changed hands and this clause were not in that contract?</p>

<p>The way to do this in Australia is to put a covenant on the title - that way, the planning authority (local council) is responsible for enforcement. Covenants are very common,usually they create easements for services or rights of way: my property has a covenant that I cannot ask my neighbors to pay for half the cost of a privacy fence (which is otherwise a legal entitlement).</p>

property