Do contracts have to be equal in terms of the amount of information shared?
<p>For example, can one party only share the name (or even just a nickname/pseudonym/online name) and the other party has to share full legal name, address, phone number, email, etc? Or both parties have to share the equal amount of information to each other.</p>

<h2>Freedom of contract</h2>
<p>Parties are (within legal limits) free to contract on whatever terms they like.</p>
<p>For example, I just had dinner in quite a nice restaurant. I know their name, they don’t know mine.</p>

<p>No, there is no need for each party to have the same amount of information about each other, subject to the limit of <a href="https://www.canlii.org/en/commentary/doc/1945CanLIIDocs61#!fragment/ROOT/BQCwhgziBcwMYgK4DsDWszIQewE4BUBTADwBdoAlAeSvwEoAaZbUwiARUUNwE9oByfgwiEwuBJ259Bw0eJABlPKQBCfCgFEAMhoBqAQQByAYQ0NSYAEbRS2OHTpA" rel="nofollow noreferrer">mistake as to party</a>, or identity requirements imposed for special categories of contracts.</p>
<p>For example, it is well-accepted that buying food at a restaurant (or any goods, from any shop) is a contract of sale: <em>Gee v. White Spot Ltd.</em> (1986) <a href="https://canlii.ca/t/210nf" rel="nofollow noreferrer">32 DLR (4th) 238</a> (B.C.S.C):</p>
<blockquote>
<p>Counsel for the plaintiffs is, in my opinion, right when he submits that, when persons go into a restaurant and order food, they are making a contract of sale in exactly the same way as they are making a contract of sale when they go into a shop and order any other goods. ... <em>the person who orders the food in a hotel or restaurant prima facie makes himself or herself liable to pay for it</em></p>
</blockquote>
<p>The customer knows much more about the restaurant than the seller knows about the customer.</p>

contract-law