Re: Question about Acts

>I am studying Paul's speech to the Athenians for a class project.  In Acts 
>17:25 the two words "prosdeomenos tinos" are translated by the NRSV as, ". . 
>. as though he needed anything. . . "  The NIV translates it, ". . .  as if 
>he needed anything. . ."  Are there grammer rules that govern the 
>translation of this as an 'aside' or is it taken from the context?
A literal translation of the verse would read 'nor is served by
men's hands having need of something'. As such it provides a
second apodosis to the the statement of v24 that God made the world
and everything in it. True there is no adversative connecting
particle before "prosdeumenos tinos" but this is implied by the
contect and the structure of the argument. It is difficult to see
how an adversative "ei" would make the sentence make any greater
sense anyway.

I hope this helps. 

Mark Lucas (London, UK)

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