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201 | What is the purpose of using bulking agents as chemical food additives? | A. Improving texture, B. Enhancing flavor, C. Reducing acidity, D. Increasing volume without adding calories | D |
202 | Which chemical food additive class is responsible for enhancing the texture and mouthfeel of food products? | A.Emulsifiers, B. Stabilizers, C. Colorants, D. Acidulants | B |
203 | What is the main role of humectants in food products? | A. Preserving freshness, B. Enhancing color, C. Increasing sweetness, D. Providing structure | A |
204 | Which class of chemical food additives is used to enhance the overall appearance and visual appeal of food products? | A. Acidulants, B. Colorants, C. Sweeteners, D. Stabilizers | B |
205 | What do leavening agents primarily contribute to food products? | A. Preservation of freshness, B. Enhancement of color, C. Texture and volume, D. Sweetness and flavor | C |
206 | Which chemical food additive is commonly used to enhance the flavor profile of processed foods? | A. Colorants, B. Sweeteners, C. Flavor enhancers, D. Stabilizers | C |
207 | What is the function of antimicrobial agents in food products? | A. Enhancing color and vibrancy, B. Improving texture and mouthfeel, C. Preventing microbial growth, D. Increasing shelf stability | C |
208 | Which class of chemical food additives is responsible for adding a sour or tangy taste to food products? | A. Emulsifiers, B. Flavor enhancers, C. Acidulants, D. Stabilizers | C |
209 | What role do thickeners play in food products? | A. Enhancing color stability, B. Providing natural sweetness, C. Increasing viscosity and texture, D. Reducing acidity | C |
210 | Which chemical food additive class is used to improve the spreadability of various food products? | A. Emulsifiers, B. Colorants, C. Sweeteners, D. Stabilizers | A |
211 | What is the primary purpose of using anti-caking agents in food products? | A. Enhancing color and vibrancy, B. Preventing clumping and caking, C. Increasing sweetness, D. Improving shelf stability | B |
212 | What role do gelling agents serve in food products? | A. Enhancing color and vibrancy, B. Increasing acidity, C. Adding natural sweetness, D. Creating a gel-like texture | D |
213 | Which chemical food additive is commonly used to enhance the color stability of processed foods? | A. Flavor enhancers, B. Stabilizers, C. Colorants, D. Acidulants | C |
214 | Which class of chemical food additives is responsible for enhancing the elasticity of certain food items? | A. Emulsifiers, B. Stabilizers, C. Acidulants, D. Texture modifiers | B |
215 | When the diet contains a high amount of unsaturated fatty acids, which vitamin needs to increase? | A. Vitamin A, B. Vitamin D, C. Vitamin E, D. Vitamin B2, E. Vitamin C | C |
216 | When the protein intake increases in the diet, which vitamin needs to increase?
| A. Thiamin, B. Riboflavin, C. Ascorbic acid, D. Pantothenic acid, E. Pyridoxine | B |
217 | The primary requirement of a balanced diet is:
| A. Providing sufficient energy according to body needs, B. Providing sufficient essential nutrients, C. Essential nutrients in appropriate proportions, D. Balance between protein/fat/carbohydrates, E. Balance between energy-yielding and non-energy-yielding nutrients | A |
218 | Among the following roles of proteins, which role is the most important? | A. Providing sufficient energy according to body needs, B. Providing sufficient essential nutrients, C. Essential nutrients in appropriate proportions, D. Balance between protein/fat/carbohydrates, E. Balance between energy-yielding and non-energy-yielding nutrients | B |
219 | Protein is NOT a structural component of? | A. Enzymes, B. Antibodies, C. Blood, D. Cell nucleus, E. Reproductive hormones3. | A |
220 | When completely burned, 1 gram of protein in the body provides (Kcal) | A. 3.0 , B. 3.5 , C. 4.0 , D. 4.5 , E. 5.04 | C |
221 | Which trio of amino acids is considered the most important in human nutrition? | A. Leucine, Isoleucine, Lysine , B. Lysine, Tryptophan, Phenylalanine , C. Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Valine , D. Lysine, Tryptophan, Methionine , E. Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine5. | B |
222 | How many essential amino acids do children require in their diet? | A. 6, B. 7, C. 8, D. 9, E. 107. | C |
223 | How many essential amino acids do adults require in their diet? | A. 6, B.7, C. 8, D. 9, E. 106 | D |
224 | Among the following foods, which type has the highest protein content? | A. Grains, B. Pork, C. Fish, D. Soybeans, E. Peanuts | E |
225 | Which role among the following roles of Lipids is the most important in human nutrition?
| A. Participating in cell structure, B. Providing energy, C. Supplying fat-soluble vitamins, D. Adding delicious flavors to meals, E. Serving as protective and cushioning tissue for organs in the body | A,E |
226 | Which substance among the following is an important factor in regulating cholesterol transport? | A. Cephalin, B. Lecithin, C. Serotonin, D. Glycerin, E. All four of the above answers are incorrect | D |
227 | When 1 gram of Lipid is completely burned in the body, it provides (Kcal) | A. 5, B. 6, C. 7, D. 8, E. 9 | D |
228 |
A chemical reaction that produces water and salts
| A. Neutralization, B. Aerobic activity, C. Anaerobic activity, D. Concentration | A |
229 | The nutritional value of fats depends on the following factors: | A. Content of vitamins A, D, E... and phosphatides, B. Content of essential unsaturated fatty acids and phosphatides, C. Content of vitamins A, D, E...; saturated fatty acids and phosphatides, D. Content of vitamins A, D, E...; essential unsaturated fatty acids and phosphatides, E. Content of phosphatides, saturated fatty acids, and good sensory properties. | B |
230 | Which of the following foods has the highest fat content? | A. Pork, B. Soybeans, C. Peanuts, D. Sesame seeds, E. Duck and chicken eggs | D |
231 | A diet is considered appropriate when it:
| A. Provides sufficient energy according to body needs and sufficient essential nutrients, B. Provides sufficient essential nutrients in appropriate proportions., C. Essential nutrients are in appropriate proportions., D. Provides sufficient energy and essential nutrients in appropriate proportions., E. Provides sufficient energy, vitamins, and minerals. | D |
232 | The daily energy expenditure of the body is used for which of the following activities?
| A. Maintaining the functions of the respiratory and circulatory systems; Receiving fooD., B. Maintaining body temperature; Receiving fooD., C. Basic metabolism; Brain and limb activities., D. Maintaining body temperature; Receiving food; Brain and limb activities., E. Basic metabolism; Receiving food; Brain and limb activities. | E |
233 | After consuming a mixed meal containing Protein, Lipid, and Carbohydrates, what percentage of the total energy intake is recommended for Carbohydrates?
| A. 5 - 10%, B. 10 - 15%, C. 15 - 20%, D. 20 - 25%, E. 25 - 30% | B |
234 | The main principle of proper nutrition for individuals engaged in mental and sedentary work is:
| A. Energy intake from diet is always higher than energy expenditurE., B. Maintaining energy intake equal to energy expenditurE., C. Energy intake from diet is always lower than energy expenditurE., D. Increasing physical activity after meals., E. Increasing energy intake combined with physical activity., | B |
235 | Principles of supplying nutrients for individuals engaged in mental work:
| A. Limit carbohydrates in the diet., B. Limit fat in the diet., C. Limit carbohydrates and fat in the diet., D. Increase carbohydrates in the diet., E. Increase fat in the diet. | C |
236 | Principles of supplying nutrients for individuals engaged in mental work:
| A. Sufficient protein, especially animal protein., B. Increase fat in the diet., C. Increase carbohydrates in the diet., D. Limit fiber., E. Increase salt. | A |
237 | Which of the following works with calcium to build strong bones
| A Vitamin D, B Vitamin C, C Phosphorus, D Iron | D |
238 | Which of the following metals is a constituent of Vitamin B12?
| A Iron, B Magnesium, C Zinc, D Cobalt | D |
239 | Which of the following contain higher amount of water
| A. Meat, , B. Potato, , C. Tomato, , D. Butter | C |
240 | Which of the following methods would be used to measure the concentration of bacterial contamination in processed peanut butter? | A. Turbidity Measurement, B. Total Plate Count, C. Dry Weight Measurement, D. Direct Counting Of Bacteria On A Calibrated Slide Under The Microscope | B |
241 | In which phase would you expect to observe the most endospores in a Bacillus cell culture? | A. Death Phase, B. Lag Phase, C. Log Phase, D. Log, Lag, And Death Phases Would All Have Roughly The Same Number Of Endospores. | A |
242 | During which phase would penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, be most effective? | A. Death Phase, B. Lag Phase, C. Log Phase, D. Stationary Phase | C |
243 | Which of the following is the best definition of generation time in a bacterium? | A. The Length Of Time It Takes To Reach The Log Phase, B. The Length Of Time It Takes For A Population Of Cells To Double, C. The Time It Takes To Reach Stationary Phase, D. The Length Of Time Of The Exponential Phase | B |
244 | What is the function of the Z ring in binary fission? | A. It Controls The Replication Of Dna., B. It Forms A Contractile Ring At The Septum., C. It Separates The Newly Synthesized Dna Molecules., D. It Mediates The Addition Of New Peptidoglycan Subunits. | B |
245 | If a culture starts with 50 cells, how many cells will be present after five generations with no cell death? | A. 200, B. 400, C. 1600, D. 3200 | C |
246 | Filamentous cyanobacteria often divide by which of the following? | A. Budding, B. Mitosis, C. Fragmentation, D. Formation Of Endospores | C |
247 | Which is a reason for antimicrobial resistance being higher in a biofilm than in free-floating bacterial cells? | A. The Eps Allows Faster Diffusion Of Chemicals In The Biofilm., B. Cells Are More Metabolically Active At The Base Of A Biofilm., C. Cells Are Metabolically Inactive At The Base Of A Biofilm., D. The Structure Of A Biofilm Favors The Survival Of Antibiotic Resistant Cells. | C |
248 | Quorum sensing is used by bacterial cells to determine which of the following? | A. The Size Of The Population, B. The Availability Of Nutrients, C. The Speed Of Water Flow, D. The Density Of The Population | D |
249 | Which of the following statements about autoinducers is incorrect? | A. They Bind Directly To Dna To Activate Transcription., B. They Can Activate The Cell That Secreted Them., C. N-Acylated Homoserine Lactones Are Autoinducers In Gram-Negative Cells., D. Autoinducers May Stimulate The Production Of Virulence Factors. | A |
250 | An inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube shows dense growth at the surface and turbidity throughout the rest of the tube. What is your conclusion? | A. The Organisms Die In The Presence Of Oxygen, B. The Organisms Are Facultative Anaerobes., C. The Organisms Should Be Grown In An Anaerobic Chamber., D. The Organisms Are Obligate Aerobes. | B |
251 | An inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube is clear throughout the tube except for dense growth at the bottom of the tube. What is your conclusion? | A. The Organisms Are Obligate Anaerobes., B. The Organisms Are Facultative Anaerobes., C. The Organisms Are Aerotolerant., D. The Organisms Are Obligate Aerobes. | D |
252 | Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common pathogen that infects the airways of patients with cystic fibrosis. It does not grow in the absence of oxygen. The bacterium is probably which of the following? | A. An Aerotolerant Anaerobe, B. An Obligate Aerobe, C. An Obligate Anaerobe, D. A Facultative Anaerobe | B |
253 | Streptococcus mutans is a major cause of cavities. It resides in the gum pockets, does not have catalase activity, and can be grown outside of an anaerobic chamber. The bacterium is probably which of the following? | A. A Facultative Anaerobe, B. An Obligate Aerobe, C. An Obligate Anaerobe, D. An Aerotolerant Anaerobe | D |
254 | Bacteria that grow in mine drainage at pH 1–2 are probably which of the following? | A. Alkaliphiles, B. Acidophiles, C. Neutrophiles, D. Obligate Anaerobes | B |
255 | Bacteria isolated from Lake Natron, where the water pH is close to 10, are which of the following? | A. Alkaliphiles, B. Facultative Anaerobes, C. Neutrophiles, D. Obligate Anaerobes | A |
256 | In which environment are you most likely to encounter an acidophile? | A. Human Blood At Ph 7.2, B. A Hot Vent At Ph 1.5, C. Human Intestine At Ph 8.5, D. Milk At Ph 6.5 | B |
257 | A soup container was forgotten in the refrigerator and shows contamination. The contaminants are probably which of the following? | A. Thermophiles, B. Acidophiles, C. Mesophiles, D. Psychrotrophs | D |
258 | Bacteria isolated from a hot tub at 39 °C are probably which of the following? | A. Thermophiles, B. Psychrotrophs, C. Mesophiles, D. Hyperthermophiles | C |
259 | In which environment are you most likely to encounter a hyperthermophile? | A. Hot Tub, B. Warm Ocean Water In Florida, C. Hydrothermal Vent At The Bottom Of The Ocean, D. Human Body | C |
260 | Which of the following is the reason jams and dried meats often do not require refrigeration to prevent spoilage? | A. Low Ph, B. Toxic Alkaline Chemicals, C. Naturally Occurring Antibiotics, D. Low Water Activity | D |
261 | Bacteria living in salt marshes are most likely which of the following? | A. Acidophiles, B. Barophiles, C. Halotolerant, D. Thermophiles | C |
262 | The term prokaryotes refers to which of the following? | A. Very Small Organisms, B. Unicellular Organisms That Have No Nucleus, C. Multicellular Organisms, D. Cells That Resemble Animal Cells More Than Plant Cells | B |
263 | The term microbiota refers to which of the following? | A. All Microorganisms Of The Same Species, B. All Of The Microorganisms Involved In A Symbiotic Relationship, C. All Microorganisms In A Certain Region Of The Human Body, D. All Microorganisms In A Certain Geographic Region | C |
264 | Foods packed in plastic for microwaving are | A. Dehydrated. , B. Freeze-Dried. , C. Packaged Aseptically. , D. Commercially Sterilized. , E. Autoclaved. | A |
265 | Acetobacter is necessary for only one of the steps of vitamin C manufacture. The easiest way to accomplish this step would be to | A. Add Substrate And Acetobacter To A Test Tube. , B. Affix Acetobacter To A Surface And Run Substrate Over It. , C. Add Substrate And Acetobacter To A Bioreactor. , D. Find An Alternative To This Step. , E. None Of The Above | B |
266 | The spoilage of canned foods caused by Geobacillus stearothermophilus | A. Bacillus Coagulans , B. Byssochlamys , C. Flat Sour Spoilage , D. Lactobacillus , E. Thermophilic Anaerobic Spoilage | E |
267 | The spoilage of canned foods caused by Geobacillus stearothermophilus | A. Bacillus Coagulans , B. Byssochlamys , C. Flat Sour Spoilage , D. Lactobacillus , E. Thermophilic Anaerobic Spoilage | C |
268 | A heat resistant fungus that causes spoilage in acidic foods | A. Bacillus Coagulans , B. Byssochlamys, C. Flat Sour Spoilage , D. Lactobacillus , E. Thermophilic Anaerobic Spoilage | B |
269 | The term 12D treatment refers to | A. Heat Treatment Sufficient To Kill 12 Bacteria. , B. The Use Of 12 Different Treatments To Preserve Food. , C. A 10^12 Reduction In C. Botulinum Endospores. , D. Any Process That Destroys Thermophilic Bacteria. | C |
270 | Which of the following microbes produces a natural pesticide? | A. Penicillium Chrysogenum , B. Saccharomyces Cerevisiae , C. Bacillus Thuringiensis , D. Lactobacillus Bulgaricus , E. Thiobacillus Ferrooxidans | C |
271 | Which of the following is utilized by aseptic packaging to sterilize laminated paper or plastic prior to filling with food? | A. Hot Hcl Solution , B. Gamma Radiation , C. Hot Hydrogen Peroxide , Solution , D. X-Ray , E. Autoclave | C |
272 | Which of the following reactions is performed by yeast in winemaking? | A. Sugar ➝ Co2 + H2O , B. Ethanol ➝ Acetic Acid , C. Malic Acid ➝ Lactic Acid , D. Carbon Dioxide ➝ Sucrose , E. Sugar ➝ Ethanol | E |
273 | All of the following are industrial products produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT | A. Aspartic Acid. , B. Citric Acid. , C. Glutamic Acid. , D. Riboflavin. , E. Saccharin. | E |
274 | How many phyla are represented in the following list of organisms: Echinococcus, Cyclospora, Aspergillus, Taenia, Toxoplasma, Trichinella? | A. 1 , B. 2 , C. 3 , D. 4 , E. 5 | D |
275 | The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is | A. Human. , B. Anopheles. , C. A Sporocyte. , D. A Gametocyte. | B |
276 | Put these stages in order of development, beginning with the egg.
1. Metacercaria
2. Redia
3. Adult
4. Miracidium
5. Cercaria | A. 5,4,1,2,3 , B. 4,2,5,1,3 , C. 2,5,4,3,1 , D. 3,4,5,1,2 , E. 2,4,5,1,3 | B |
277 | If a snail is the first intermediate host of a parasite with these stages, which would be found in the snail?
1. Metacercaria
2. Redia
3. Adult
4. Miracidium
5. Cercaria | A. 1 , B. 2 , C. 3 , D. 4 , E. 5 | B |
278 | Fleas are the intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum tapeworm, and dogs are the definitive host. Which stage of the parasite could be found in the flea? | A. Cysticercus Larva , B. Proglottids , C. Scolex , D. Adult | A |
279 | Which of the following statements about yeasts are true?
1. Yeasts are fungi.
2. Yeasts can form pseudohyphae.
3. Yeasts reproduce asexually by budding.
4. Yeasts are facultatively anaerobic.
5. All yeasts are pathogenic.
6. All yeasts are dimorphic. | A. 1, 2, 3, 4 , B. 3, 4, 5, 6 , C. 2, 3, 4, 5 , D. 1, 3, 5, 6 , E. 2, 3, 4 | A |
280 | Which of the following events follows cell fusion in an ascomycete? | A. Conidiophore Formation , B. Conidiospore Germination , C. Ascus Opening , D. Ascospore Formation , E. Conidiospore Release | E |
281 | These are obligate intracellular parasites that lack mitochondria | A. Apicomplexa , B. Ciliates , C. Dinoflagellates , D. Microsporidia | D |
282 | These are nonmotile parasites with special organelles for penetrating host tissue | A. Apicomplexa , B. Ciliates , C. Dinoflagellates , D. Microsporidia | A |
283 | These photosynthetic organisms can cause paralytic shellfish poisoning. | A. Apicomplexa , B. Ciliates , C. Dinoflagellates , D. Microsporidia | C |
284 | The cell wall is present in:
a. animals
b. fungi
c. algae
d. protozoa
e. plants
f. bacteria | A. All Of The Above , B. A, C, And E , C. B, C, And E , D. C And D | C |
285 | The cell wall is absent in:
a. animals
b. fungi
c. algae
d. protozoa
e. plants
f. bacteria | A. All Of The Above , B. A, C, And E , C. B And F , D. A And D , E. C And D | D |
286 | All eukaryotes have: | A. Cell Walls And Cell Membranes , B. Nucleus And Sterols , C. Phospholipid Bilayer And Chitin | B |
287 | The sexual spores of fungi include: | A. Conidiospores, Sporangiospores And Basidiospores , B. Conidiospores And Chlamydoconidium , C. Zygospores, Ascospores And Basidiospores , D. Fungi Only Reproduce Asexually | C |
288 | Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus) | A. It Is Always Pathological To Humans, B. Immunisation Is Available Against All The Virulent Strains, C. It Survives Well Outside The Body, D. It Has A Polysaccharide Capsule, | D |
289 | Herpes simplex encephalitis | A. This Shows A Predilection For The Occipital Lobe, B. It Typically Has A Rapid Symptom Onset, C. It Is A Mild Self-Limiting Disease, D. It Is Diagnosed By Csf Pcr, | D |
290 | Concerning immunity | A. Immunity In Newborns Is The Result Of Transplacental Transfer Of Maternal T Cells, B. Elevated Igm Signifies Recent Infection, C. Defects In The Complement Pathway Predispose To Infections With, Neisseria Species, D. Splenectomy Predisposes To Cryptococcal Infections, | B,C |
291 | The following are notifiable diseases | A. Hiv, B. Malaria, C. Food Poisoning, D. Chickenpox, | B,C |
292 | Regarding neutrophils | A. Most Are Found In The Circulation, B. Adhesion Is Mediated By Opsonin, C. A Neutrophilia With Left Shift Is Due To The Appearance Of Immature Forms, D. A Neutrophilia Occurs Following Exercise, | A,B |
293 | Miliary tuberculosis (TB) | A. This Is Diagnosed Easily By Examining Sputum For Acid-Fast Bacilli, B. It Is Frequently Diagnosed Only At Post-Mortem Examination, C. It Is Highly Contagious, D. Lumbar Puncture In Meningeal Tb Usually Shows Elevated Protein And Glucose Levels, | B |
294 | Toxic shock syndrome | A. This Results From A Superantigen Toxin, B. Over 80% Of Cases Are Associated With Tampon Use, C. It Typically Follows Streptococcal Infection, D. It Is Usually Associated With A Petechial Rash, | A |
295 | Clostridium spp. | A. These Cause Clinical Effects By The Release Of Endotoxins, B. They Are Spore-Forming, Anaerobic, Gram-Negative Bacilli, C. Clostridium Perfringens Causes Gas Gangrene And Food Poisoning, D. Symptomatic Clostridium Difficile Infection Occurs Only After Antibiotic Use, | C |
296 | Malaria | A. Benign Malaria Is Usually Caused By Plasmodium Ovale, B. It Is Excluded If No Parasites Are Seen On A Blood Film, C. Malaria Occurring In Pregnancy Is Associated With A Poorer Prognosis, D. It May Present More Than 9 Months After Return From An Endemic Area, | C,D |
297 | In the UK immunisation schedule | A. Diphtheria, Tetanus And Pertussis Are Given At 2, 3, 4 And 18 Months Of Age, B. Pneumococcal Vaccination Is Given At 2, 4 And 13 Months, C. Chickenpox Immunisation Is Given With The Mmr Immunisation, D. Tetanus And Diphtheria Vaccines Are Live Attenuated Vaccines, | B |
298 | The following causative organisms and disease pairings are correct | A. Borrelia Burgdorferi – Weil’S Disease, B. Corynebacterium Sp. – Diphtheria, C. Rhabdovirus – Dengue Fever, D. Rotavirus – Bronchiolitis, | B |
299 | Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) | A. This Usually Results From The Haematogenous Spread Of Organisms, B. Chlamydia Is The Most Frequent Causative Organism, C. When Caused By Gonorrhoea It May Be Accompanied By A Perihepatitis, D. Treatment Should Be Commenced Only Once The Causative Organism Has Been Confirmed, | B |
300 | Bacterial endocarditis | A. This Is Excluded By A Negative Blood Culture, B. It Is Most Commonly The Result Of Staphylococcal Infection, C. In Intravenous Drug Users It Is Commonly Due To Strep. Bovis, D. It Affects The Tricuspid And Pulmonary Valve More Often In, Injecting Drug Users, | D |
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